The nurse is assessing a client who was recently diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease and is taking carbidopa-levodopa. The client is concerned that the medication is not working. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Ask if the client’s morning voids are dark colored.
Evaluate the client for signs of dyskinesia.
Determine if the client is taking the medication before meals.
Explore what the client means by the drug “is not working.”
The Correct Answer is D
A) Ask if the client’s morning voids are dark colored:
This intervention pertains to monitoring for potential adverse effects of carbidopa-levodopa, such as urine discoloration due to the breakdown of levodopa into dopamine. However, it does not directly address the client’s concern about the medication not working. While assessing for adverse effects is important, it may not provide immediate insight into the effectiveness of the medication in managing Parkinson’s disease symptoms.
B) Evaluate the client for signs of dyskinesia:
Dyskinesia refers to involuntary, abnormal movements that can occur as a side effect of long-term treatment with carbidopa-levodopa. While assessing for dyskinesia is essential during the management of Parkinson’s disease, it does not directly address the client’s immediate concern about the medication’s efficacy. It would be more appropriate to address the client’s primary concern first before assessing for potential adverse effects.
C) Determine if the client is taking the medication before meals:
The timing of medication administration, particularly with carbidopa-levodopa, can affect its absorption and effectiveness. Taking the medication with or without food can influence its onset of action and duration of effect. However, this intervention assumes that the client may not be taking the medication correctly, which may not necessarily be the case. It’s important to first clarify the client’s perception of the medication’s effectiveness before addressing administration instructions.
D) Explore what the client means by the drug “is not working.”
This option is correct. The nurse should prioritize exploring the client’s perception of the medication’s efficacy. Understanding the client’s specific concerns, such as which symptoms are not adequately controlled or how they define “not working,” can provide valuable information for further assessment and intervention. By actively listening to the client’s perspective, the nurse can collaboratively address any misconceptions, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and provide education or reassurance accordingly.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Worsening headache:
This option is correct. Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH), acts to increase water reabsorption in the kidneys, thereby reducing urine output. However, excessive administration of vasopressin can lead to vasoconstriction, which may result in increased intracranial pressure and subsequent headaches. Therefore, worsening headache can be indicative of vasopressin overdose or adverse effects, and it should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for evaluation and appropriate management.
B) Polyuria:
Polyuria, or excessive urine output, is the opposite effect of vasopressin. While diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria due to insufficient ADH secretion or renal responsiveness to ADH, administering vasopressin should decrease urine output. Therefore, polyuria would not be expected as a side effect of vasopressin administration.
C) Polydipsia:
Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, is also a symptom of diabetes insipidus but is not typically associated with vasopressin administration. Vasopressin functions to decrease urine output and, consequently, reduce thirst. Therefore, polydipsia would not be expected as a side effect of vasopressin administration.
D) Low urine specific gravity:
Vasopressin administration is expected to increase urine specific gravity by promoting water reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to more concentrated urine. Therefore, low urine specific gravity would not be an expected side effect of vasopressin administration.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Colorectal cancer:
While a history of colorectal cancer is important to note in a client’s medical history, it is not typically a contraindication for estrogen replacement therapy. Estrogen replacement therapy may even have benefits in terms of reducing the risk of colorectal cancer in some cases. However, the primary concern in this scenario is the client’s history of pulmonary embolism, which presents a significant risk factor for adverse outcomes with estrogen therapy.
B) Pulmonary embolism:
A history of pulmonary embolism is a significant contraindication for estrogen replacement therapy. Estrogen therapy increases the risk of thromboembolic events, and individuals with a history of pulmonary embolism are already predisposed to such events. Administering estrogen replacement therapy to a client with a history of pulmonary embolism could further increase the risk of recurrent embolism or deep vein thrombosis, leading to potentially life-threatening complications.
C) Dyspareunia:
Dyspareunia, or painful sexual intercourse, is a symptom commonly associated with menopause and may be an indication for estrogen replacement therapy. However, it is not a contraindication for treatment unless there are other complicating factors that need to be considered.
D) Osteoporosis:
Osteoporosis, characterized by decreased bone density and increased susceptibility to fractures, is often treated with estrogen replacement therapy to help maintain bone health and reduce the risk of fractures. While it is important to consider the client’s osteoporosis diagnosis when initiating estrogen therapy, it is not typically a contraindication for treatment unless there are other specific concerns or complications present.
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