A client who is experiencing vasomotor symptoms related to menopause receives a new prescription for estrogen replacement. Which client condition should the nurse report the healthcare provider prior to administering the first dose of the medication?

Colorectal cancer.

Pulmonary embolism.

Dyspareunia.

Osteoporosis.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Colorectal cancer:
While a history of colorectal cancer is important to note in a client’s medical history, it is not typically a contraindication for estrogen replacement therapy. Estrogen replacement therapy may even have benefits in terms of reducing the risk of colorectal cancer in some cases. However, the primary concern in this scenario is the client’s history of pulmonary embolism, which presents a significant risk factor for adverse outcomes with estrogen therapy.

B) Pulmonary embolism:

A history of pulmonary embolism is a significant contraindication for estrogen replacement therapy. Estrogen therapy increases the risk of thromboembolic events, and individuals with a history of pulmonary embolism are already predisposed to such events. Administering estrogen replacement therapy to a client with a history of pulmonary embolism could further increase the risk of recurrent embolism or deep vein thrombosis, leading to potentially life-threatening complications.

C) Dyspareunia:

Dyspareunia, or painful sexual intercourse, is a symptom commonly associated with menopause and may be an indication for estrogen replacement therapy. However, it is not a contraindication for treatment unless there are other complicating factors that need to be considered.

D) Osteoporosis:

Osteoporosis, characterized by decreased bone density and increased susceptibility to fractures, is often treated with estrogen replacement therapy to help maintain bone health and reduce the risk of fractures. While it is important to consider the client’s osteoporosis diagnosis when initiating estrogen therapy, it is not typically a contraindication for treatment unless there are other specific concerns or complications present.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) A dimly lit room:
Mydriatic medications cause pupil dilation by stimulating the dilator muscle of the iris. In bright light, dilated pupils can lead to photophobia (sensitivity to light) and discomfort for the client. Therefore, placing the client in a dimly lit room helps to minimize the discomfort associated with increased sensitivity to light. This environment also supports visual acuity and reduces the risk of visual disturbances that can occur with bright light.

B) A warm room temperature:
While maintaining a comfortable room temperature is important for overall client comfort, it is not specifically related to the administration of mydriatic medications. The choice of room temperature may vary based on the client’s preferences and individual comfort needs but is not directly influenced by the use of mydriatic medications.

C) Cool, humidified air:
Cool, humidified air may be beneficial for certain respiratory conditions or for promoting comfort in some clients. However, it is not directly relevant to the administration of mydriatic medications. The choice of room temperature and humidity level should prioritize the client’s overall comfort and specific health needs but does not specifically relate to the effects of mydriatic drugs.

D) A quiet, restful environment:
While providing a quiet, restful environment is important for promoting relaxation and comfort, it is not specifically related to the administration of mydriatic medications. Clients receiving mydriatic drugs may benefit from restful surroundings to minimize stress or anxiety, but this choice does not address the potential visual discomfort associated with pupil dilation induced by mydriatic drugs.

A. Begin therapy 1 week before the next normal menstrual cycle. B. Use condoms and a backup method of birth control to prevent pregnancy. C. Ensure a negative pregnancy test result 2 weeks before therapy. D. Call the healthcare provider immediately if there is a chance of conception.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Begin therapy 1 week before the next normal menstrual cycle:
Misoprostol is often prescribed to prevent gastric ulcers induced by nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and is typically taken regularly with meals and at bedtime. The timing of therapy initiation is not necessarily linked to the menstrual cycle. Therefore, instructing the client to begin therapy specifically 1 week before the next normal menstrual cycle is incorrect and indicates a need for further teaching.

B) Use condoms and a backup method of birth control to prevent pregnancy:
Misoprostol is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its potential to induce uterine contractions and cause miscarriage or fetal abnormalities. Therefore, advising the client to use condoms and a backup method of birth control to prevent pregnancy while taking misoprostol is appropriate and aligns with safety precautions.

C) Ensure a negative pregnancy test result 2 weeks before therapy:
Confirming a negative pregnancy test result before initiating misoprostol therapy is essential because the medication can cause harm to a developing fetus. This instruction is correct and reinforces the importance of avoiding pregnancy while taking misoprostol.

D) Call the healthcare provider immediately if there is a chance of conception:
Given the teratogenic effects of misoprostol, advising the client to contact the healthcare provider immediately if there is a chance of conception is crucial. This instruction emphasizes the importance of avoiding pregnancy while taking the medication and seeking medical guidance promptly if pregnancy is suspected.

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A client who is experiencing vasomotor symptoms related to menopause receives a new prescription for estrogen replacement. Which client condition should the nurse report the healthcare provider prior to administering the first dose of the medication?

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