A client who is experiencing vasomotor symptoms related to menopause receives a new prescription for estrogen replacement. Which client condition should the nurse report the healthcare provider prior to administering the first dose of the medication?
Colorectal cancer.
Pulmonary embolism.
Dyspareunia.
Osteoporosis.
The Correct Answer is B
A) Colorectal cancer:
While a history of colorectal cancer is important to note in a client’s medical history, it is not typically a contraindication for estrogen replacement therapy. Estrogen replacement therapy may even have benefits in terms of reducing the risk of colorectal cancer in some cases. However, the primary concern in this scenario is the client’s history of pulmonary embolism, which presents a significant risk factor for adverse outcomes with estrogen therapy.
B) Pulmonary embolism:
A history of pulmonary embolism is a significant contraindication for estrogen replacement therapy. Estrogen therapy increases the risk of thromboembolic events, and individuals with a history of pulmonary embolism are already predisposed to such events. Administering estrogen replacement therapy to a client with a history of pulmonary embolism could further increase the risk of recurrent embolism or deep vein thrombosis, leading to potentially life-threatening complications.
C) Dyspareunia:
Dyspareunia, or painful sexual intercourse, is a symptom commonly associated with menopause and may be an indication for estrogen replacement therapy. However, it is not a contraindication for treatment unless there are other complicating factors that need to be considered.
D) Osteoporosis:
Osteoporosis, characterized by decreased bone density and increased susceptibility to fractures, is often treated with estrogen replacement therapy to help maintain bone health and reduce the risk of fractures. While it is important to consider the client’s osteoporosis diagnosis when initiating estrogen therapy, it is not typically a contraindication for treatment unless there are other specific concerns or complications present.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A)Holds the pen in place after the injection:
This action is appropriate. Holding the auto-injector pen in place after administering the injection allows the medication to be fully delivered into the muscle. It ensures that the full dose of epinephrine is administered, which is crucial during an emergency situation such as anaphylaxis.
B) Administers into the fleshy outer thigh:
Administering the epinephrine injection into the fleshy outer thigh is the correct technique. The thigh muscle provides a large and accessible area for injection, allowing for rapid absorption of the medication into the bloodstream. This action facilitates the quick onset of epinephrine’s effects, which is vital in treating anaphylaxis.
C) Cleanses the injection pen for re-use:
This action requires intervention by the nurse. Epinephrine auto-injectors are designed for single use only and should not be cleansed or reused. Reusing the injection pen can lead to contamination, incorrect dosing, or malfunction, compromising its effectiveness during subsequent emergencies. It is essential to educate the client that the auto-injector pen is for one-time use only, and a new device should be used if another dose is required.
D) Inserts the injection pen through clothing:
While it is ideal to administer the injection directly onto bare skin, inserting the injection pen through clothing is acceptable in emergency situations when immediate access to bare skin is not possible. The priority during anaphylaxis is administering the epinephrine promptly. However, if feasible, the clothing should be moved aside to allow direct contact of the injection site with the skin for optimal absorption of the medication.
Correct Answer is ["200"]
Explanation
The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 200 mL/hr.
Although the medication dosage is 400 mg, the infusion pump rate is determined by the total volume of the IV fluid (including the medication) and the desired infusion time.
In this case:
Total volume of IV bag (D,W): 200 mL
Infusion time: 1 hour
Since the medication is already diluted in the 200 mL bag, the entire volume needs to be delivered over the course of the hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the pump to deliver the full 200 mL of the solution at a rate of:
200 mL / 1 hour = 200 mL/hr
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.