After receiving the third dose of a new oral anticoagulant prescription, an older client develops bleeding and tender gums and has many new bruises. Which action(s) should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Obtain a soft bristle toothbrush for client.

Provide a PRN nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAID) for gum discomfort.

Review most recent coagulation lab values.

Report findings to healthcare provider.

Complete a medication variance report.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,C,D

A) Obtain a soft bristle toothbrush for the client:
This is an appropriate action because bleeding and tender gums can indicate oral bleeding, which may be exacerbated by the use of a standard toothbrush. Switching to a soft bristle toothbrush can help minimize trauma to the gums and reduce bleeding.

B) Provide a PRN nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for gum discomfort:
Administering NSAIDs in this situation is not recommended. NSAIDs can further increase the risk of bleeding due to their antiplatelet effects. Therefore, providing an NSAID could exacerbate the client’s bleeding symptoms.

C) Review most recent coagulation lab values:
This is a crucial action to assess the client’s coagulation status and determine if the bleeding and bruising are related to anticoagulant therapy. Reviewing coagulation lab values, such as prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR), can provide important information about the client’s clotting function and guide further management.

D) Report findings to the healthcare provider:
This is essential to ensure timely evaluation and management of the client’s symptoms. Bleeding and bruising after anticoagulant therapy may indicate an increased risk of bleeding complications, and the healthcare provider needs to be informed promptly for further assessment and possible adjustment of the anticoagulant regimen.

E) Complete a medication variance report:
While documenting the client’s symptoms and actions taken is important for quality assurance and tracking adverse events, completing a medication variance report may not be the immediate priority in this situation. The focus should be on assessing the client’s condition, managing symptoms, and communicating with the healthcare provider for appropriate intervention

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Answer: B. Administer a second dose of naloxone.

Rationale:

A) Prepare to assist with chest tube insertion:
Chest tube insertion is not relevant in this situation. A chest tube is typically used for conditions like pneumothorax or pleural effusion, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. The immediate concern here is the opioid overdose and the need for further naloxone administration to reverse the opioid effects, not the placement of a chest tube.

B) Administer a second dose of naloxone:
Administering a second dose of naloxone is the most appropriate action. Naloxone is a short-acting opioid antagonist, and its effects can wear off before the opioids have fully cleared from the client’s system. Given that the client’s respiratory rate is severely depressed and the oxygen saturation is dangerously low, another dose of naloxone is necessary to reverse the opioid's effects and restore adequate breathing. Immediate action is required to prevent further hypoxia.

C) Determine Glasgow Coma Scale score:
While assessing the client’s level of consciousness using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is important, it is not the immediate priority in this situation. The client’s low respiratory rate and oxygen saturation indicate a critical need for immediate treatment to improve ventilation and oxygenation. Administering naloxone should take precedence over neurological assessment.

D) Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR):
While the client’s respiratory depression is severe, initiating CPR may not yet be necessary if the client still has a pulse. Administering naloxone can potentially reverse the respiratory depression and prevent the need for CPR. If the client's condition continues to decline despite naloxone administration, CPR may become necessary later, but the first step is to administer a second dose of naloxone to restore breathing.

A. Expresses that they cannot get enough air to breathe. B. Respiratory rate of 7 breaths/minute. C. Bilateral wheezing on auscultation. D. Pulse oximeter reading of 89% on room air.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Expresses that they cannot get enough air to breathe: While this statement suggests respiratory distress, it is not as objective an assessment finding as a respiratory rate of 7 breaths/minute. Objective measurements are typically more reliable indicators for initiating interventions.
B) Respiratory rate of 7 breaths/minute: A respiratory rate of 7 breaths/minute is indicative of respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of opioid analgesics like morphine sulfate. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. Administering a prescribed PRN dose of naloxone is appropriate to counteract the respiratory depression and prevent further complications.
C) Bilateral wheezing on auscultation: Wheezing is more commonly associated with bronchoconstriction or airway obstruction rather than opioid-induced respiratory depression. Naloxone is not indicated for wheezing unless there is concurrent opioid-induced respiratory depression.
D) Pulse oximeter reading of 89% on room air: While a pulse oximeter reading of 89% indicates hypoxemia, it may not be solely due to opioid-induced respiratory depression. Other factors, such as hypoventilation, ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) mismatch, or lung disease, could contribute to decreased oxygen saturation. Administering naloxone solely based on pulse oximetry readings may not address the underlying cause adequately. It is essential to assess the client comprehensively, considering clinical signs and symptoms along with objective data.

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After receiving the third dose of a new oral anticoagulant prescription, an older client develops bleeding and tender gums and has many new bruises. Which action(s) should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse administers naloxone to a client with opioid-induced respiratory depression. One hour later, nursing assessment reveals that the client has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation of 75%, and is unable to be aroused. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Rationale:

A client is receiving morphine sulfate via a patient controlled analgesic (PCA) pump postoperatively. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to administer a prescribed PRN dose of naloxone?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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