A client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes insipidus is receiving a synthetic vasopressin intravenously. Which side effect of vasopressin reported by the client should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
Worsening headache.
Polyuria.
Polydipsia.
Low urine specific gravity.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Worsening headache:
This option is correct. Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH), acts to increase water reabsorption in the kidneys, thereby reducing urine output. However, excessive administration of vasopressin can lead to vasoconstriction, which may result in increased intracranial pressure and subsequent headaches. Therefore, worsening headache can be indicative of vasopressin overdose or adverse effects, and it should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for evaluation and appropriate management.
B) Polyuria:
Polyuria, or excessive urine output, is the opposite effect of vasopressin. While diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria due to insufficient ADH secretion or renal responsiveness to ADH, administering vasopressin should decrease urine output. Therefore, polyuria would not be expected as a side effect of vasopressin administration.
C) Polydipsia:
Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, is also a symptom of diabetes insipidus but is not typically associated with vasopressin administration. Vasopressin functions to decrease urine output and, consequently, reduce thirst. Therefore, polydipsia would not be expected as a side effect of vasopressin administration.
D) Low urine specific gravity:
Vasopressin administration is expected to increase urine specific gravity by promoting water reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to more concentrated urine. Therefore, low urine specific gravity would not be an expected side effect of vasopressin administration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Urinary output equal intake:
This assessment finding suggests that the client is voiding an amount of urine equivalent to their fluid intake, indicating effective bladder emptying. Bethanechol is a cholinergic agonist that stimulates bladder contraction, helping to improve urinary retention by promoting the expulsion of urine from the bladder. Equal urinary output and intake indicate that the bladder is adequately emptying, which is a positive response to bethanechol therapy.
B) No terminal urinary dribbling:
While the absence of terminal urinary dribbling may be an indicator of improved bladder emptying, it is not as definitive as assessing urinary output equal to intake. Terminal urinary dribbling refers to the involuntary loss of urine that occurs after completing urination due to incomplete emptying of the bladder. While its absence may suggest improved bladder emptying, it is not as reliable an indicator as measuring urinary output.
C) Denies stress incontinence:
The absence of stress incontinence, which is the involuntary loss of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure (such as coughing, sneezing, or lifting), is not directly related to the effectiveness of bethanechol for urinary retention. Bethanechol primarily targets urinary retention by stimulating bladder contraction rather than addressing stress incontinence, which involves weakness of the pelvic floor muscles.
D) Absence of xerostomia:
Xerostomia refers to dryness of the mouth due to decreased saliva production and is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications. Bethanechol, as a cholinergic agonist, may actually increase saliva production and is not typically associated with xerostomia. However, the absence of xerostomia does not directly indicate the effectiveness of bethanechol for urinary retention.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Schedule both medications at bedtime:
Administering both medications at bedtime may not be the most appropriate schedule. PTU is typically administered multiple times a day to maintain consistent therapeutic levels in the bloodstream. Additionally, administering Lugol’s solution at bedtime may not provide sufficient time for the iodine to take effect before the PTU.
B) Administer iodine one hour before PTU:
This option is correct. Lugol’s solution, a strong iodine solution, is often given before antithyroid medications such as PTU or methimazole to temporarily block thyroid hormone production. Administering iodine about one hour before PTU allows the iodine to be taken up by the thyroid gland, effectively reducing thyroid hormone synthesis before the PTU starts to inhibit the conversion of T4 to T3.
C) Give parental dose once every 24 hours:
This option does not address the timing of administration between PTU and Lugol’s solution. While it may be correct for the dosing frequency of PTU, it does not specify when to administer Lugol’s solution in relation to PTU.
D) Offer both drugs together with a meal:
Administering both drugs together with a meal may not be appropriate, especially considering that Lugol’s solution needs to be absorbed into the bloodstream to exert its effect on the thyroid gland. Administering Lugol’s solution and PTU together may not allow adequate time for the iodine to take effect before the PTU starts to inhibit thyroid hormone production.
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