The nurse is administering sucralfate to a client with stomatitis secondary to chemotherapy. The client wants to take the medication after breakfast. How should the nurse respond?

Allow the client to take the medication up to 1 hour after breakfast.

Instruct the client to take it when the meal tray is delivered.

Document the client's refusal of the medication at this time.

Explain the need to take the medication at least 1 hour before meals.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A) Allow the client to take the medication up to 1 hour after breakfast:
Administering sucralfate up to 1 hour after breakfast may not provide optimal effectiveness as it should ideally be taken on an empty stomach to form a protective barrier over irritated areas in the stomach and intestines before food intake. Taking it after breakfast might not allow sufficient time for the medication to coat these areas adequately.

B) Instruct the client to take it when the meal tray is delivered:
Taking sucralfate with meals or when the meal tray is delivered is not recommended as food can interfere with its effectiveness. It is best taken on an empty stomach to allow it to coat the stomach lining without interference from food, ensuring maximum therapeutic benefit.

C) Document the client's refusal of the medication at this time:
Documenting a refusal should only be done if the client declines after receiving appropriate education and understanding. Simply refusing the client's request without providing education on the proper timing for taking sucralfate would not be appropriate.

D) Explain the need to take the medication at least 1 hour before meals:
This is the correct response. Educating the client about the importance of taking sucralfate at least 1 hour before meals ensures optimal effectiveness. This timing allows the medication to form a protective barrier over irritated areas in the stomach and intestines before food intake, maximizing its therapeutic benefit.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Positive guaiac of stool:
A positive guaiac test indicates the presence of occult (hidden) blood in the stool, which may suggest gastrointestinal bleeding. Given the client’s history of heartburn, indigestion, and self-treatment with ibuprofen and antacids, gastrointestinal irritation or ulceration may be occurring, leading to bleeding. Gastrointestinal bleeding can cause fatigue, dizziness, and other symptoms. Therefore, it is essential to report this finding immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

B) Hematocrit 42% (0.42 volume fraction):
A hematocrit level within the reference range (42% to 52%) is considered normal. While a slight decrease in hematocrit may indicate anemia, it is not an urgent finding that requires immediate reporting. The client’s hematocrit level of 42% is within the normal range, so it does not warrant immediate concern.

C) Gastric pH 2.0:
A gastric pH of 2.0 falls within the normal range (1.5 to 3.5) for gastric acid pH. This finding indicates normal gastric acidity and does not suggest an acute problem that requires immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

D) Hemoglobin 13 g/dL (130 g/L):
A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL is slightly below the lower end of the reference range (14 to 18 g/dL) but does not indicate a critical condition requiring immediate intervention. While it may suggest mild anemia, it is not an urgent finding that necessitates immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

A. Worsening headache. B. Polyuria. C. Polydipsia. D. Low urine specific gravity.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Worsening headache:
This option is correct. Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH), acts to increase water reabsorption in the kidneys, thereby reducing urine output. However, excessive administration of vasopressin can lead to vasoconstriction, which may result in increased intracranial pressure and subsequent headaches. Therefore, worsening headache can be indicative of vasopressin overdose or adverse effects, and it should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for evaluation and appropriate management.

B) Polyuria:
Polyuria, or excessive urine output, is the opposite effect of vasopressin. While diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria due to insufficient ADH secretion or renal responsiveness to ADH, administering vasopressin should decrease urine output. Therefore, polyuria would not be expected as a side effect of vasopressin administration.

C) Polydipsia:
Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, is also a symptom of diabetes insipidus but is not typically associated with vasopressin administration. Vasopressin functions to decrease urine output and, consequently, reduce thirst. Therefore, polydipsia would not be expected as a side effect of vasopressin administration.

D) Low urine specific gravity:
Vasopressin administration is expected to increase urine specific gravity by promoting water reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to more concentrated urine. Therefore, low urine specific gravity would not be an expected side effect of vasopressin administration.

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The nurse is administering sucralfate to a client with stomatitis secondary to chemotherapy. The client wants to take the medication after breakfast. How should the nurse respond?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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