The nurse administers the initial dose of cefoxitin to a client whose medical record indicates an allergy to penicillin. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Diminished renal output.

Pruritis and macular rash.

Vomiting and diarrhea.

Vaginal discharge.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Diminished renal output:
Diminished renal output could be a potential concern with cefoxitin administration, as it is primarily excreted by the kidneys. However, it is not specifically related to the client’s allergy to penicillin. While it warrants monitoring, it is not the most critical finding to report in this context.

B) Pruritis and macular rash:
The development of pruritis (itchiness) and a macular rash (flat, discolored skin lesions) following the administration of cefoxitin in a client with a documented allergy to penicillin is a significant finding. It suggests a possible allergic reaction to cefoxitin, which belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics. Cross-reactivity between penicillin and cephalosporins is well-documented, with some cephalosporins having a higher risk of allergic reactions in individuals with penicillin allergy. Therefore, pruritis and rash in this context may indicate an allergic response, and it is crucial to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

C) Vomiting and diarrhea:
While gastrointestinal symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea can occur as adverse effects of cefoxitin, they are not specific to an allergic reaction and may occur with various medications. While it is essential to monitor for these symptoms, they are not the most important findings to report in the context of a known penicillin allergy.

D) Vaginal discharge:
Vaginal discharge is not typically associated with an allergic reaction to cefoxitin. While changes in vaginal discharge may be clinically relevant in certain contexts, such as indicating a possible yeast infection or bacterial vaginosis, it is not directly related to the client’s allergy to penicillin or the administration of cefoxitin.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Positive guaiac of stool:
A positive guaiac test indicates the presence of occult (hidden) blood in the stool, which may suggest gastrointestinal bleeding. Given the client’s history of heartburn, indigestion, and self-treatment with ibuprofen and antacids, gastrointestinal irritation or ulceration may be occurring, leading to bleeding. Gastrointestinal bleeding can cause fatigue, dizziness, and other symptoms. Therefore, it is essential to report this finding immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

B) Hematocrit 42% (0.42 volume fraction):
A hematocrit level within the reference range (42% to 52%) is considered normal. While a slight decrease in hematocrit may indicate anemia, it is not an urgent finding that requires immediate reporting. The client’s hematocrit level of 42% is within the normal range, so it does not warrant immediate concern.

C) Gastric pH 2.0:
A gastric pH of 2.0 falls within the normal range (1.5 to 3.5) for gastric acid pH. This finding indicates normal gastric acidity and does not suggest an acute problem that requires immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

D) Hemoglobin 13 g/dL (130 g/L):
A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL is slightly below the lower end of the reference range (14 to 18 g/dL) but does not indicate a critical condition requiring immediate intervention. While it may suggest mild anemia, it is not an urgent finding that necessitates immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

A. Urinary output equal intake. B. No terminal urinary dribbling. C. Denies stress incontinence. D. Absence of xerostomia.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Urinary output equal intake:
This assessment finding suggests that the client is voiding an amount of urine equivalent to their fluid intake, indicating effective bladder emptying. Bethanechol is a cholinergic agonist that stimulates bladder contraction, helping to improve urinary retention by promoting the expulsion of urine from the bladder. Equal urinary output and intake indicate that the bladder is adequately emptying, which is a positive response to bethanechol therapy.

B) No terminal urinary dribbling:
While the absence of terminal urinary dribbling may be an indicator of improved bladder emptying, it is not as definitive as assessing urinary output equal to intake. Terminal urinary dribbling refers to the involuntary loss of urine that occurs after completing urination due to incomplete emptying of the bladder. While its absence may suggest improved bladder emptying, it is not as reliable an indicator as measuring urinary output.

C) Denies stress incontinence:
The absence of stress incontinence, which is the involuntary loss of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure (such as coughing, sneezing, or lifting), is not directly related to the effectiveness of bethanechol for urinary retention. Bethanechol primarily targets urinary retention by stimulating bladder contraction rather than addressing stress incontinence, which involves weakness of the pelvic floor muscles.

D) Absence of xerostomia:
Xerostomia refers to dryness of the mouth due to decreased saliva production and is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications. Bethanechol, as a cholinergic agonist, may actually increase saliva production and is not typically associated with xerostomia. However, the absence of xerostomia does not directly indicate the effectiveness of bethanechol for urinary retention.

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The nurse administers the initial dose of cefoxitin to a client whose medical record indicates an allergy to penicillin. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the prescription bethanechol is effective for a client diagnosed with urinary retention?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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