The nurse is administering the angiotensin II receptor antagonist valsartan. Which physiological response causes its therapeutic effect?
Chronotropic effect.
Diuresis
Vasodilation.
Sympatholytic action.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Chronotropic effect: This term refers to changes in heart rate. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists like valsartan primarily affect blood pressure and vascular tone, rather than directly altering heart rate.
B) Diuresis: Diuresis involves increased urine production. Although some antihypertensives can have a diuretic effect, valsartan primarily works through mechanisms other than increasing urine output.
C) Vasodilation: Angiotensin II receptor antagonists such as valsartan work by blocking the action of angiotensin II, which leads to vasodilation. This reduction in vascular resistance helps to lower blood pressure and is the primary therapeutic effect of valsartan.
D) Sympatholytic action: This refers to the suppression of sympathetic nervous system activity. Valsartan does not primarily act through sympathetic nervous system modulation but rather through direct vasodilation by blocking angiotensin II receptors.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Pull up 30 units from the 70/30 vial, but only administer one third: The 70/30 insulin vial contains a mixture of 70% isophane (NPH) insulin and 30% regular insulin. If 30 units of this mixture are drawn, the actual amount of regular insulin would be 30% of 30 units, which equals 9 units. This does not equate to the 10 units of regular insulin required, making this option inaccurate for precise dosing.
B) Withdraw ten units regular insulin from the 70/30 vial: The 70/30 vial provides a fixed ratio of regular to NPH insulin. Extracting 10 units from this vial would not yield exactly 10 units of regular insulin; instead, it would include both types in the specified ratio, leading to an incorrect dosage of regular insulin.
C) Withhold the dose until insulin regular is available on the unit: Since the 70/30 vial contains a mixture and not solely regular insulin, it is necessary to withhold the dose until a vial of regular insulin is available. This ensures that the precise amount of regular insulin needed is administered, avoiding the imprecision and potential errors that could arise from using a mixed insulin vial.
D) Obtain a new vial of regular insulin and withdraw ten units: While obtaining a new vial of regular insulin is the correct approach for ensuring accurate dosing, the option of withdrawing ten units directly from a vial of regular insulin is not feasible if the current medication available is a mixture. This option assumes that the correct type of insulin is already available for use.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Assess the client for other indications of adverse effects of corticosteroid use: While important, this action does not address the immediate issue of stopping the medication safely.
B. Advise the client that the medication should be stopped gradually rather than abruptly: Corticosteroids should not be stopped suddenly due to the risk of adrenal insufficiency and withdrawal symptoms. Gradual tapering is necessary to safely discontinue the medication.
C. Encourage the client to take the medication with food to decrease GI distress: This can help manage GI symptoms but does not address the issue of safely discontinuing the medication.
D. Review the client's dosing schedule to ensure he is taking the prescribed amount: This is useful but does not resolve the problem of safely stopping the medication.
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