The nurse is administering the angiotensin II receptor antagonist valsartan. Which physiological response causes its therapeutic effect?
Chronotropic effect.
Diuresis
Vasodilation.
Sympatholytic action.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Chronotropic effect: This term refers to changes in heart rate. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists like valsartan primarily affect blood pressure and vascular tone, rather than directly altering heart rate.
B) Diuresis: Diuresis involves increased urine production. Although some antihypertensives can have a diuretic effect, valsartan primarily works through mechanisms other than increasing urine output.
C) Vasodilation: Angiotensin II receptor antagonists such as valsartan work by blocking the action of angiotensin II, which leads to vasodilation. This reduction in vascular resistance helps to lower blood pressure and is the primary therapeutic effect of valsartan.
D) Sympatholytic action: This refers to the suppression of sympathetic nervous system activity. Valsartan does not primarily act through sympathetic nervous system modulation but rather through direct vasodilation by blocking angiotensin II receptors.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Fingerstick glucose: While important in managing diabetes or hypoglycemia, it is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of lactulose in treating hepatic encephalopathy.
B. Stool color and character: Lactulose acts as a laxative, and its effectiveness can affect stool characteristics. However, stool color and character are less direct indicators of therapeutic response compared to serum ammonia levels.
C. Serum hepatic enzymes: While liver enzyme levels can provide information about liver function, they do not directly measure the effectiveness of lactulose in managing hepatic encephalopathy. Serum ammonia levels are more specific for this purpose.
D. Serum electrolytes and ammonia: Lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy by reducing blood ammonia levels. Monitoring serum ammonia levels provides direct feedback on the effectiveness of the medication in treating hepatic encephalopathy. Additionally, serum electrolytes should be monitored because lactulose can lead to electrolyte imbalances due to its laxative effect.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Hypokalemia: Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can cause potassium loss through increased urine production. A common side effect of thiazide diuretics is hypokalemia, which can lead to symptoms such as palpitations or the sensation of the heart skipping beats. Therefore, it is crucial to check the client’s potassium levels to determine if hypokalemia is contributing to the client's symptoms.
B. Hyponatremia: While thiazide diuretics can affect sodium levels, hypokalemia is more directly associated with the symptoms described. Hyponatremia (low sodium levels) might also occur but is less commonly linked to the symptom of a skipped heartbeat compared to hypokalemia.
C. Hyperphosphatemia: Hydrochlorothiazide is not known to cause significant changes in phosphate levels, and hyperphosphatemia is not typically associated with the sensation of skipped heartbeats.
D. Hypermagnesemia: This condition, which involves elevated magnesium levels, is not a common side effect of hydrochlorothiazide. Hypokalemia is a more relevant concern for the symptoms described.
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