The nurse is administering the angiotensin II receptor antagonist valsartan. Which physiological response causes its therapeutic effect?

Chronotropic effect.

Diuresis

Vasodilation.

Sympatholytic action.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) Chronotropic effect: This term refers to changes in heart rate. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists like valsartan primarily affect blood pressure and vascular tone, rather than directly altering heart rate.
B) Diuresis: Diuresis involves increased urine production. Although some antihypertensives can have a diuretic effect, valsartan primarily works through mechanisms other than increasing urine output.
C) Vasodilation: Angiotensin II receptor antagonists such as valsartan work by blocking the action of angiotensin II, which leads to vasodilation. This reduction in vascular resistance helps to lower blood pressure and is the primary therapeutic effect of valsartan.
D) Sympatholytic action: This refers to the suppression of sympathetic nervous system activity. Valsartan does not primarily act through sympathetic nervous system modulation but rather through direct vasodilation by blocking angiotensin II receptors.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication: This timing is correct for monitoring vancomycin levels. The peak level is typically measured immediately after the completion of the infusion (though peak levels are less commonly required for vancomycin), and the trough level is measured just before the next dose is due, 30 minutes before administration. This approach helps in evaluating the medication's efficacy and safety.
B. One hour after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next administration of the medication: This timing is not ideal. The peak level for vancomycin is usually measured immediately after the dose rather than one hour later. Trough levels are measured closer to the next dose, typically 30 minutes before the next dose.
C. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and two hours before the next administration of the medication: Measuring levels two hours after the dose completion is too late for a peak level. The trough level should be measured closer to the next dose, generally 30 minutes before the next administration.
D. Thirty minutes into the administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication: Measuring the level 30 minutes into the infusion is not appropriate for peak levels, which are typically measured.

A. 40-year-old female with frequent vaginal infections. B. A 50-year-old male with a history of angina. C. An 18-year-old pregnant female with type 1 diabetes mellitus. D. A 75-year-old male with bone cancer.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Simvastatin is a medication used to lower cholesterol and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attacks. It is most commonly prescribed to individuals with a history of heart disease, high cholesterol, or related conditions like angina. The other options are less likely to benefit from simvastatin based on the information provided.

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The nurse is administering the angiotensin II receptor antagonist valsartan. Which physiological response causes its therapeutic effect?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is receiving IV vancomycin and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine the serum level of the medication. Which collection times provide the best determination of these levels?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse is preparing client teaching materials on commonly used medications. Which client is most likely to benefit from a client education packet about simvastatin?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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