The nurse is administering the sixth IV dose of gentamicin to a client with extensive full thickness burns. Which assessment finding warrants further intervention?

Reference Range:

White Blood Cell [5000 to 10,000/mm3 (5 to 10 x 10 %/L)] Blood Urea Nitrogen [10 to 20 mg/dL (3.6 to 7.1 mmol/L)] Creatinine [0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL (44 to 97 µmol/L)]

Serum creatinine level of 1.6 mg/l. (141 µmol), a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 20 mg/dL.(7.1 mmol/L)

Reports a sore mouth and three episodes of diarrhea that began this morning.

White blood count of 9,000/mm3 (9 x 109/L) and an oral temperature of 98.2° F (36.7° C) two hours ago.

Urinary output of 400 ml of clear, amber colored urine in the past eight hours.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Serum creatinine level of 1.6 mg/dL (141 µmol/L), a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 20 mg/dL (7.1 mmol/L): Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside that is known for its nephrotoxic potential. Elevated serum creatinine and BUN levels are indicative of impaired kidney function, which warrants further investigation and possible intervention. This finding is significant because it may reflect kidney damage or reduced renal clearance of the drug.
B. Reports a sore mouth and three episodes of diarrhea that began this morning: While these symptoms are important and could suggest a possible adverse effect or secondary infection, they are not as immediately concerning in the context of gentamicin therapy as the potential for kidney damage indicated by elevated creatinine and BUN levels.
C. White blood count of 9,000/mm³ (9 x 10^9/L) and an oral temperature of 98.2°F (36.7°C) two hours ago: These values are within normal ranges and do not suggest an immediate concern related to gentamicin toxicity.
D. Urinary output of 400 mL of clear, amber-colored urine in the past eight hours: While monitoring urinary output is important, this level of output does not necessarily indicate a problem in the context of gentamicin therapy compared to elevated creatinine and BUN levels.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Chronotropic effect: This term refers to changes in heart rate. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists like valsartan primarily affect blood pressure and vascular tone, rather than directly altering heart rate.
B) Diuresis: Diuresis involves increased urine production. Although some antihypertensives can have a diuretic effect, valsartan primarily works through mechanisms other than increasing urine output.
C) Vasodilation: Angiotensin II receptor antagonists such as valsartan work by blocking the action of angiotensin II, which leads to vasodilation. This reduction in vascular resistance helps to lower blood pressure and is the primary therapeutic effect of valsartan.
D) Sympatholytic action: This refers to the suppression of sympathetic nervous system activity. Valsartan does not primarily act through sympathetic nervous system modulation but rather through direct vasodilation by blocking angiotensin II receptors.

A. Assess the client for other indications of adverse effects of corticosteroid use. B. Advise the client that the medication should be stopped gradually rather than abruptly. C. Encourage the client to take the medication with food to decrease Gl distress. D. Review the client's dosing schedule to ensure he is taking the prescribed amount.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Assess the client for other indications of adverse effects of corticosteroid use: While important, this action does not address the immediate issue of stopping the medication safely.
B. Advise the client that the medication should be stopped gradually rather than abruptly: Corticosteroids should not be stopped suddenly due to the risk of adrenal insufficiency and withdrawal symptoms. Gradual tapering is necessary to safely discontinue the medication.
C. Encourage the client to take the medication with food to decrease GI distress: This can help manage GI symptoms but does not address the issue of safely discontinuing the medication.
D. Review the client's dosing schedule to ensure he is taking the prescribed amount: This is useful but does not resolve the problem of safely stopping the medication.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is administering the angiotensin II receptor antagonist valsartan. Which physiological response causes its therapeutic effect?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A male client reports to the nurse that he is experiencing gastrointestinal (GI) distress from a high dose of a corticosteroid and is planning to stop taking the medication. In response to the client's statement, which nursing action is most important for the nurse to Implement?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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