The nurse continues to care for the client.
Sudden muscular contractions
Orthostatic hypotension
Anticholinergic effects
Tremors
Sedation
Increased urination
Correct Answer : A,B,C,D,E
Rationale:
A. Sudden muscular contractions: Antipsychotics like haloperidol and chlorpromazine can cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), including acute dystonia, which manifests as sudden, involuntary muscle contractions typically affecting the face, neck, or back.
B. Orthostatic hypotension: Chlorpromazine, a low-potency typical antipsychotic, often causes orthostatic hypotension due to its alpha-adrenergic blockade, increasing fall risk, especially in older adults or those new to therapy.
C. Anticholinergic effects: These include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. Chlorpromazine is particularly known for its anticholinergic side effects due to its action on muscarinic receptors.
D. Tremors: Tremors are part of parkinsonian side effects, another form of EPS commonly caused by haloperidol. They result from dopamine blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway.
E. Sedation: Both haloperidol and chlorpromazine can cause sedation. Chlorpromazine is especially sedating due to its histamine (H1) receptor blockade, which depresses the CNS.
F. Increased urination: Not typically associated with these medications. In fact, anticholinergic effects from chlorpromazine more often lead to urinary retention, not increased urination.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Choices:
- Evaluating the fetal heart rate tracing: The client’s report of decreased fetal movement and severe hypertension raises concern for fetal compromise. Immediate fetal assessment ensures the fetus is tolerating the intrauterine environment, especially before administering medications like magnesium sulfate.
- Administering magnesium sulfate IV: This is prescribed to prevent eclampsia, given the client’s severely elevated BP, hyperreflexia, and proteinuria. After confirming fetal status, seizure prophylaxis should be initiated without delay.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices:
- Administering acetaminophen PO: Although ordered for headache, the symptom is a manifestation of severe preeclampsia. Treating it symptomatically without addressing its cause could delay necessary critical interventions.
- Obtaining a 24-hour urine collection: Useful for confirming the extent of proteinuria, but not immediately necessary for clinical decision-making given existing positive findings.
- Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter: This supports fluid monitoring during magnesium therapy, but fetal assessment and seizure prevention take precedence.
- Administering betamethasone IM: Important for fetal lung development in preterm pregnancies, but it is not the immediate priority when there is a high risk for seizure or fetal distress.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. "Opioids should not be given to older adults.": Opioids can be given to older adults when necessary, but with caution. The dose may need adjustment due to age-related changes in metabolism and increased sensitivity, not outright avoidance.
B. "Pain perception is decreased in older adult clients.": Pain perception does not decrease with age. Older adults may have conditions that affect communication or cognition, but their ability to feel pain remains intact, and they can still experience significant discomfort.
C. "Older adults report pain less frequently than younger clients.": Older adults often underreport pain due to beliefs that pain is a normal part of aging or fear of treatment consequences. This makes active assessment and trust-building essential in managing their pain effectively.
D. "Older adults require higher doses of pain medication.": Older adults typically require lower or more carefully titrated doses due to slower metabolism, decreased renal clearance, and heightened drug sensitivity, especially to central nervous system effects.
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