The nurse assesses the client after the dose of albuterol and documents the findings in the chart.
Which action(s) should the nurse plan for the rest of the shift? Select all that apply.
Allow the client to take a position of comfort
Discuss aggressive respiratory treatment options
Prepare for deep tracheal suctioning
Discuss with the client potential asthma triggers
Wean the supplemental oxygen
Obtain a sputum culture
Monitor the oxygen saturation
Consider positive pressure ventilation
Correct Answer : A,D,G
A. Allowing the client to find a comfortable position can help reduce anxiety and promote relaxation, which can be beneficial during an asthma exacerbation.
B. While the patient is currently receiving treatment with albuterol and oxygen, discussing aggressive respiratory treatment options may not be necessary at this moment unless the patient's condition deteriorates and requires escalation of care.
C. Deep tracheal suctioning is not indicated based on the current assessment findings unless there is a specific clinical indication such as excessive secretions or respiratory distress.
D. Identifying and discussing potential triggers is important for asthma management. This helps the client understand what factors might exacerbate their asthma and how to avoid them in the future.
E. Since the patient's oxygen saturation is still below target (91% on room air), weaning the supplemental oxygen is not appropriate at this time. The oxygen therapy should be continued as per the titration orders to maintain saturation above 94%.
F. Obtaining a sputum culture is not typically indicated in acute asthma exacerbations unless there is suspicion of a secondary infection or if the patient develops persistent fever and productive cough.
G. Continuously monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to ensure it remains above 94%. This helps gauge the effectiveness of treatment and ensures the patient's respiratory status is stable.
H. Positive pressure ventilation is a more advanced intervention and is not indicated based on the current assessment findings. It would only be considered if the patient's condition worsens despite maximal medical therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","E","F"]
Explanation
A. Since the client is already on a fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) of 35% and has successfully weaned off the ventilator, increasing the FIO2 may not be necessary unless the client's oxygenation status deteriorates post-extubation.
B. As the client has successfully weaned off pressure support and is now at 0 cm H2O, the healthcare provider may consider transitioning to a different ventilator mode such as T-piece or CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure) to further assess the client's ability to breathe spontaneously without ventilator support.
C. Ice chips are typically offered to conscious patients to alleviate thirst or dry mouth. The client was previously intubated and may not be fully conscious or able to swallow safely immediately post- extubation.
D. Since the client has been weaned off pressure support successfully, there is no indication to set the ventilator to provide mandatory breaths. The focus is on assessing the client's ability to breathe spontaneously.
E. Even though the client has been weaned off the ventilator, it's important to ensure adequate oxygenation. Setting up supplemental oxygen delivery, such as via nasal cannula or face mask, can support the client's oxygen needs during the transition phase post-extubation.
F. Since the client has been successfully weaned to 0 cm H2O pressure support and the healthcare provider is evaluating the client, gathering supplies for potential extubation is appropriate. This includes ensuring all necessary equipment and supplies for a safe extubation procedure are readily available at the bedside.
G. Unless specifically indicated for other medical reasons not mentioned, there is no immediate need to place a nasogastric tube based on the information provided about the client's current condition post- weaning.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale
A. The complement system is part of the immune response and can be activated in various conditions, including sepsis. However, activation of complement pathways does not directly cause DIC. Instead, in septic shock, the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines and tissue factor can trigger systemic coagulation activation, leading to DIC.
B. Inhibition of red blood cell production, such as in conditions like aplastic anemia or certain types of bone marrow disorders, does not directly cause DIC. DIC is primarily a disorder of excessive activation of clotting factors in response to underlying conditions like sepsis, trauma, or cancer.
C. Production of extra platelets, or thrombocytosis, is not the cause of DIC. Thrombocytosis can occur in response to various conditions, but DIC involves consumption of platelets due to widespread activation of clotting within the vasculature.
D. DIC is characterized by the widespread consumption and depletion of clotting factors and platelets as they are used up in the formation of microthrombi throughout the bloodstream. This depletion leads to an increased risk of bleeding due to insufficient clotting factors remaining to maintain hemostasis.
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