The nurse assesses a postpartum woman's perineum and notices that her lochial discharge is moderate in amount and red. The nurse would record this as what type of lochia?
Lochia alba
Lochia normal
Lochia serosa
Lochia rubra
The Correct Answer is D
This is because lochia rubra is the first stage of lochia, the vaginal discharge after giving birth. It comprises blood, shreds of fetal membranes, decidua, vernix caseosa, lanugo, and membranes. It is red in color because of the large amount of blood it contains. It lasts 1 to 4 days after birth.
Choice A is not correct because lochia alba is the last stage of lochia. It is whitish or yellowish-white in color and contains fewer red blood cells and more leukocytes, epithelial cells, cholesterol, fat, mucus, and microorganisms. It lasts from the second through the third to sixth weeks after delivery.
Choice B is not correct because there is no such thing as lochia normal. Lochia has three stages: lochia rubra, lochia serosa and lochia alba.
Choice C is not correct because lochia serosa is the second stage of lochia. It is brownish or pink in color and contains serous exudate, erythrocytes, leukocytes, cervical mucus, and microorganisms. It lasts for 4 to 12 days after delivery.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This can be from the sudden withdrawal of your hormones. It is not a cause for alarm. This is because newborn female babies may have a little bloody vaginal discharge in their diapers due to the withdrawal of maternal hormones after delivery. This usually stops as the hormones return to normal levels. The nurse should reassure the mother that this is a normal and harmless phenomenon and does not require any treatment.
Choice A is wrong because the blood is not related to cleaning her perineal area. The nurse should not blame the mother for being careless.
Choice B is wrong because the baby does not need an appointment for this condition. The nurse should not alarm the mother unnecessarily.
Choice C is wrong because the mother does not need to watch her baby for this condition. The nurse should not leave the mother in doubt or anxiety.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Anticoagulants for 6 weeks. This is because the client’s symptoms suggest that she has deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a blood clot in a deep vein of the leg. DVT is a serious condition that can lead to pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage of a blood vessel in the lungs. The treatment for DVT involves anticoagulants, which are drugs that prevent blood clots from growing or forming new ones. The duration of anticoagulant therapy depends on the risk factors and severity of DVT, but it is usually at least 6 weeks.
Choice A is wrong because gentle massage of the affected leg can dislodge the clot and cause a pulmonary embolism.
Choice C is wrong because passive leg exercises can increase blood flow and worsen pain and swelling.
Choice D is wrong because the application of ice to the affected leg can reduce inflammation but does not treat the underlying clot.
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