The nurse administers atropine 0.5 mg IV to a client. Which action should be performed after the client has received this medication?
Administer timolol eye drops to both eyes
Insert an indwelling catheter
Administer an antidiarrheal medication
Provide frequent oral care
The Correct Answer is D
A. Timolol eye drops are not indicated following the administration of atropine, as atropine has no effect on intraocular pressure.
B. Inserting an indwelling catheter is not necessary for the administration of atropine, which is used to treat bradycardia, not urinary retention.
C. Administering an antidiarrheal medication is unrelated to atropine administration; atropine typically causes dry mouth rather than diarrhea.
D. Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that decreases saliva production, which can lead to dry mouth and discomfort. Frequent oral care is important to prevent oral mucosal irritation and discomfort for the client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While family support is important, encouraging complete assistance with all activities of daily living (ADLs) is not an ideal intervention. The goal is to maintain as much independence as possible, even if that means modifying or pacing activities. Encouraging complete dependency can lead to deconditioning and further loss of function.
B. Clustering activities is not the best intervention for this problem. Clustering involves grouping multiple tasks together at once, which can overwhelm the patient and lead to fatigue. Instead, the nurse should encourage pacing and spreading out activities to avoid overexertion, even if the patient has energy.
C. Providing alternating periods of activity and rest is a fundamental strategy in managing activity intolerance due to chronic heart failure. This approach helps balance the energy demands of daily activities with rest to prevent fatigue and overexertion. By alternating activity and rest, the patient can perform necessary tasks while minimizing strain on the heart.
D. The goal in chronic heart failure is to help the patient maintain independence and function as much as possible. Limiting self-care could lead to increased dependency and reduced quality of life. Activity modifications and appropriate pacing are better strategies.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. INR = 3.7: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a measure of blood clotting. An INR greater than
3.0 indicates that the blood is not clotting properly, which can be caused by warfarin overdose. An elevated INR requires FFP to correct coagulopathy.
B. Hemoglobin = 6.3g/dL: This is low, indicating anemia, but it is not directly related to warfarin overdose. The primary issue here is coagulopathy, not anemia.
C. Fibrinogen = 90mg/dL: Fibrinogen levels may be decreased in various conditions, but this alone does not necessarily require additional FFP unless it’s below a critical threshold. Fibrinogen is not the main marker for warfarin overdose.
D. Platelets = 101,000 mm3: This platelet count is within the lower end of the normal range but does not indicate that more FFP is needed in response to warfarin overdose.
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