The nurse administers atropine 0.5 mg IV to a client. Which action should be performed after the client has received this medication?

Administer timolol eye drops to both eyes

Insert an indwelling catheter

Administer an antidiarrheal medication

Provide frequent oral care

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   Timolol eye drops are not indicated following the administration of atropine, as atropine has no effect on intraocular pressure.
B.   Inserting an indwelling catheter is not necessary for the administration of atropine, which is used to treat bradycardia, not urinary retention.
C.   Administering an antidiarrheal medication is unrelated to atropine administration; atropine typically causes dry mouth rather than diarrhea.
D.   Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that decreases saliva production, which can lead to dry mouth and discomfort. Frequent oral care is important to prevent oral mucosal irritation and discomfort for the client.

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Correct Answer is ["5"]

Explanation

(desired dose in mg/hr) / (concentration of medication in mg/mL) = infusion rate in mL/hr.

In this case, the desired dose is 5 mg/hr, and the concentration of medication is 125 mg in 125 mL, which simplifies to 1 mg/mL.

Therefore, the infusion rate is 5 mg/hr divided by 1 mg/mL, resulting in an infusion rate of 5 mL/hr.

Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the IV pump to 5 mL/hr.

A. Perform a 12 lead EKG and request an order for bumetanide 0.5 mg IV B. Administer pantoprazole sodium 40 mg by mouth to decrease GI distress C. Administer carvedilol 10 mg by mouth and reassess in 30 minutes D. Complete the remainder of the assessment and continue to monitor

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. The 12-lead EKG might be unnecessary right now, especially since the client has no other alarming symptoms. Bumetanide is also not indicated for nausea or tachycardia in this scenario.
B. There is no clear indication that the nausea is related to acid reflux or GI distress that would justify pantoprazole.
C. The tachycardia could be physiological, and treating it with a beta-blocker is unnecessary unless there is a more concerning underlying cause (like heart failure or ischemia). The priority here is not pharmacological intervention but monitoring the client's overall condition.
D. This action allows for appropriate monitoring of the client's condition. Sinus tachycardia may resolve on its own without intervention, and the client doesn't exhibit severe symptoms requiring immediate pharmacologic treatment.

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The nurse administers atropine 0.5 mg IV to a client. Which action should be performed after the client has received this medication?

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Explanation

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