The mother of a child with cerebral palsy (CP) asks the nurse if her child's impaired movements will worsen as the child grows.
Which response provides the best explanation?
CP is one of the most common permanent physical disabilities in children.
Brain damage with CP is not progressive but does have a variable course.
Severe motor dysfunction determines the extent of successful habilitation.
Continued development of the brain lesion determines the child's outcome.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
CP being one of the most common permanent physical disabilities in children is a general statement but does not directly address the mother's question about the progression of her child's impaired movements. It does not provide an explanation for the potential course of CP.
Choice B rationale:
Brain damage with CP is not progressive but does have a variable course. This response provides the best explanation to the mother's question. CP is a static neurological condition, which means that the initial brain injury that led to CP does not worsen over time. However, the functional abilities and impairments of a child with CP can vary widely and may change as the child grows and develops. Some children may improve with therapy and interventions, while others may have relatively stable impairments.
Choice C rationale:
Severe motor dysfunction determines the extent of successful habilitation is not entirely accurate. While the severity of motor dysfunction does play a role in the challenges a child with CP may face, it does not solely determine the extent of successful habilitation. Many factors, including early intervention, therapy, and individualized care, can influence a child's progress and potential for improvement.
Choice D rationale:
Continued development of the brain lesion determines the child's outcome is not an accurate statement. CP is primarily caused by non-pro
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
- A bowel patern is the frequency, consistency, and appearance of a person's bowel movements. A normal bowel patern is what's normal for each person, and it can vary depending on factors such as diet, age, physical activity, and health conditions.
- A focused gastrointestinal system assessment includes collecting subjective data about the patient's history of gastrointestinal disease, signs and symptoms of gastrointestinal problems, diet and nutrition, and bowel patern. It also includes inspecting and auscultating the abdomen for any abnormalities³.
- When a client reports having a bowel movement three days ago, the first action that the practical nurse should implement is to determine the client's usual bowel patern. This will help to evaluate if the client is experiencing constipation or if this is their normal frequency. It will also help to identify any changes or risk factors that may affect the client's bowel function.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer, while options A, C, and D are incorrect.
Option A is incorrect because administering a stool softener without assessing the client's bowel patern may not be appropriate or effective.
Option C is incorrect because encouraging ambulation may help to stimulate bowel activity, but it is not the first action to take.
Option D is incorrect because recommending dietary changes may be helpful for preventing or treating constipation, but it is not the first action to take.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
Choice B rationale:
Stroke is a condition that occurs when the blood supply to a part of the brain is interrupted, causing brain tissue damage. Facial drooping and garbled speech are common signs of stroke, especially if they occur suddenly and on one side of the face.Stroke is a medical emergency that requires immediate treatment to prevent further brain damage and complications
Choice C rationale:
An allergic reaction could cause various symptoms, but it typically does not result in facial drooping or garbled speech. Common signs of an allergic reaction include hives, itching, redness, and swelling of the skin, as well as difficulty breathing in severe cases (anaphylaxis). There is no mention of these symptoms in the client’s presentation.
Choice D rationale:
Malignant hypertension is a possibility given the client’s extremely high blood pressure reading. This condition refers to severe hypertension that can quickly lead to organ damage. However, while it can cause neurological symptoms if it leads to a hypertensive crisis, the specific symptoms of facial drooping and garbled speech are more indicative of a stroke. In conclusion, based on the collected data, the nurse recognizes that the client is most likely exhibiting signs of a stroke as evidenced by neurological defects (facial drooping and garbled speech). The client’s high blood pressure and reported alcohol consumption are both risk factors for stroke. Immediate medical intervention is crucial to minimize brain damage and potential complications.
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