The mental health nurse is leading a group about relaxation and explains the benefits of deep breathing for relaxation. As a female client begins to explain how she uses yoga to relax, another client interrupts and asks, "What's yoga?" Which is the nurse's best response?
"Yoga is not the subject of this group."
"What do you want to know about it?"
"Wait, let her finish talking."
"Do not interrupt in group again."
The Correct Answer is B
A. "Yoga is not the subject of this group": This response dismisses the client's curiosity and could shut down the conversation. Shutting down the discussion abruptly can make clients feel unheard and discourage participation, hindering the therapeutic environment.
B. "What do you want to know about it?": This response validates the client's interest and encourages open discussion. The nurse can provide a brief explanation without derailing the group session.
C. "Wait, let her finish talking": This response may seem dismissive and could discourage engagement. It is important to address the interruption respectfully while also encouraging dialogue.
D. "Do not interrupt in group again": This kind of response can create a hostile environment, shut down communication, and damage the therapeutic relationship between the nurse and the clients, especially in a mental health setting where trust and open expression are vital.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Type of anticonvulsant prescribed: While the class or type of anticonvulsant influences seizure control, it does not directly indicate whether the client is receiving a sufficient dosage. The therapeutic effectiveness depends more on blood concentration than classification.
B. History of a recent illness: Acute illness can temporarily lower the seizure threshold, but it is a less specific indicator for predicting recurrence than pharmacologic control. The underlying condition must be assessed, but medication levels are more predictive of seizure risk.
C. Therapeutic level of medication: A subtherapeutic drug level is a strong predictor of seizure recurrence. Maintaining an adequate plasma concentration ensures optimal seizure control and is crucial in clients recovering from status epilepticus, where precise management is essential.
D. Duration of previous seizure activity: The length of the prior seizure can indicate severity but not the likelihood of recurrence. Even brief seizures can recur if anticonvulsant levels are inadequate, so duration is not as clinically useful as drug level monitoring.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Dilated pupils, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, elation: These symptoms are more typical of stimulant intoxication and do not indicate alcohol withdrawal. They are not consistent with the need for a detox protocol focused on alcohol or other depressants.
B. Excessive eating, constipation, headache: These symptoms are not associated with alcohol or drug intoxication or withdrawal. They do not suggest a need for detoxification medication protocols.
C. Nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, anxiety, tremors: These are classic signs of alcohol withdrawal and suggest the need for detoxification. These symptoms require immediate intervention to manage withdrawal safely and avoid complications.
D. Mood lability, poor hand coordination, fever, drowsiness: These signs are more indicative of intoxication with substances like sedatives. While concerning, they do not point to alcohol withdrawal, which requires specific detox protocols.
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