The nurse implements a tertiary prevention program for type 2 diabetes mellitus in a rural health clinic. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?

Only 30% of clients did not attend self-management education sessions.

Average client scores improved on specific risk factor knowledge tests.

Clients who developed disease complications promptly received rehabilitation.

More than 50% of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Only 30% of clients did not attend self-management education sessions: This outcome does not directly indicate the effectiveness of a tertiary prevention program, which focuses on managing disease complications and improving quality of life after diagnosis.

B. Average client scores improved on specific risk factor knowledge tests: Improved knowledge is important, but tertiary prevention aims more at managing and reducing the impact of complications in individuals who already have the disease.

C. Clients who developed disease complications promptly received rehabilitation: Tertiary prevention focuses on minimizing the impact of established disease and preventing further disability. Effective rehabilitation for clients with complications demonstrates successful tertiary prevention.

D. More than 50% of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process: Early diagnosis falls under secondary prevention, not tertiary. Secondary prevention aims to identify and treat disease early to prevent complications, not managing existing complications.

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Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"C"}

Explanation

Rationale:

Pain: The client is reporting intense pain (10 on a 0 to 10 scale) in his left arm, and he is unable to move it. This suggests a possible fracture or significant soft tissue injury. Managing this pain is the priority to ensure the client’s comfort and prevent further complications.
Compartment syndrome: Given the swelling, bruising, and coolness to the touch in the left arm, compartment syndrome is a serious risk. This occurs when swelling or bleeding in a muscle compartment increases pressure, potentially compromising blood flow to muscles and nerves. Immediate interventions are required to prevent tissue damage.

Rationale for Incorrect Options:

Swelling: While swelling is present, it is a natural part of the healing process and not the primary concern in this case. The risk of compartment syndrome is much more urgent than managing swelling.
Mobility: The client’s mobility is impaired due to pain, but pain management must be prioritized before focusing on restoring mobility. Only once pain is controlled should mobility be addressed.
Fat embolism syndrome: Although fat embolism syndrome is a risk in traumatic fractures, especially with long bone injuries, the symptoms of this client (swelling, bruising, cool arm) point more directly to the risk of compartment syndrome rather than fat embolism syndrome.
Venous thromboembolism (VTE): VTE is a concern in immobilized patients, but in the acute phase, compartment syndrome poses a more immediate threat. The priority is to manage the current trauma and risk for compartment syndrome before considering VTE prevention.

A. Heart rate 100 beats/minute. B. Blood pressure 125/65 mm Hg. C. Heart rate 70 beats/minute. D. Blood pressure 115/70 mm Hg.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Heart rate 100 beats/minute: A compensatory increase in heart rate (tachycardia) is expected in orthostatic hypotension. It helps maintain cerebral perfusion when blood pools in the lower extremities after standing quickly.

B. Blood pressure 125/65 mm Hg: This BP shows a slight systolic increase, which is not typical after orthostatic stress. A decrease in BP, not an increase, would be expected if symptoms like dizziness are present.

C. Heart rate 70 beats/minute: A decreased heart rate is not physiologically expected when someone experiences postural hypotension. Bradycardia would worsen cerebral perfusion and is inconsistent with dizziness.

D. Blood pressure 115/70 mm Hg: This change is too minor to explain dizziness. In orthostatic hypotension, we usually expect a drop of ≥20 mm Hg systolic or ≥10 mm Hg diastolic after position change.

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The nurse implements a tertiary prevention program for type 2 diabetes mellitus in a rural health clinic. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Exhibits Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statements by selecting from the lists of options provided. Based on the client's condition, the priority need will be to addressdropdown. In addition, he will need interventions to preventdropdown.

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"C"}

Explanation

A client's most recent vital signs include heart rate 80 beats/minute and blood pressure 119/70 mm Hg. When the client reports dizziness after rising quickly, which finding should the nurse expect on reassessment?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse completes percussion of the abdomen on an older adult client. Which finding is considered normal for this client?

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