The healthcare provider prescribes an IV solution of clindamycin 850 mg in 75 ml of D5W to infuse over 30 minutes.
The drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse should regulate the IV to deliver how many gtt/minute? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)
The Correct Answer is ["38"]
Here are the steps to calculate the IV flow rate:
Step 1: Calculate the volume to be infused per minute.
75 mL ÷ 30 minutes = 2.5 mL/minute
Step 2: Multiply the volume per minute by the drop factor to determine the drops per minute.
2.5 mL/minute × 15 gtt/mL = 37.5 gtt/minute
Step 3: Round the answer to the nearest whole number. The nurse should regulate the IV to deliver 38 gtt/minute.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Reported history of alcoholism.
Choice A rationale:
Employment as a construction worker is not directly relevant to the administration of terbinafine HCL. While it may affect the client’s overall health and risk of injury, it does not impact the medication’s safety or efficacy.
Choice B rationale:
A white blood cell count of 8,500/mm³ (8.5 x 10³/L) is within the normal range and does not indicate any immediate concern that would affect the administration of terbinafine HCL.
Choice C rationale:
Thick and yellow toenails are typical symptoms of a fungal toenail infection and are the reason for prescribing terbinafine HCL. This finding confirms the diagnosis but does not present a contraindication to the medication.
Choice D rationale:
A reported history of alcoholism is crucial to address because terbinafine HCL can cause liver toxicity. Clients with a history of alcoholism are at higher risk for liver damage, and this must be carefully evaluated before starting the medication.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Total protein is a measure of the overall protein content in the blood. It includes albumin and globulin.
While it can be helpful in assessing nutritional status and liver function, it is not directly relevant to the client's current symptoms of pallor and fatigue.
Decreased total protein can indicate malnutrition or liver disease, but these conditions would not typically cause the specific symptoms of pallor and fatigue.
Therefore, total protein is not the most important laboratory value to review in this case.
Choice B rationale:
Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body.
Paleness (pallor) is a common sign of anemia, which is a condition characterized by a low hemoglobin level. Fatigue is also a common symptom of anemia, as the body's tissues are not receiving enough oxygen.
Diclofenac, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, which can lead to anemia. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to review the client's hemoglobin level to assess for potential anemia.

Choice C rationale:
Glucose is a type of sugar that the body uses for energy.
Abnormal glucose levels can cause various symptoms, including fatigue. However, glucose levels would not typically cause pallor.
Additionally, there is no indication in the question stem that the client has any risk factors for diabetes or other disorders that affect glucose metabolism.
Therefore, glucose is not the most likely cause of the client's symptoms.
Choice D rationale:
Sodium is an electrolyte that helps regulate fluid balance in the body.
Abnormal sodium levels can cause various symptoms, including fatigue and weakness. However, sodium levels would not typically cause pallor.
Additionally, there is no indication in the question stem that the client has any risk factors for electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, sodium is not the most likely cause of the client's symptoms.
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