The final step in the formation of a blood clot is:
The formation of prothrombin activator.
The conversion of prothrombin to thrombin by prothrombin activator.
The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin.
Tissue damage.
The Correct Answer is C
The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin is the final step in the formation of a blood clot.
Fibrin is a protein that forms a net-like structure that traps platelets and other blood cells, making the clot stronger and more durable.
Choice A is wrong because the formation of a prothrombin activator is the first step in the formation of a blood clot.
A prothrombin activator is a complex of enzymes that converts prothrombin to thrombin.
Choice B is wrong because the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin by the prothrombin activator is the second step in the formation of a blood clot.
Thrombin is an enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin.
Choice D is wrong because tissue damage is not a step in the formation of a blood clot, but a trigger for the clotting process.
When blood vessels are injured, they release substances that activate platelets and clotting factors.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because the external jugular vein drains blood from the face and scalp into the subclavian vein.
Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
Choice A. Superior vena cava.
This is wrong because the superior vena cava is a large vein that collects blood from the head, neck, chest, and upper limbs and returns it to the right atrium of the heart.
It does not drain blood from the face and scalp directly.
Choice B. Subclavian vein.
This is wrong because the subclavian vein is a vein that receives blood from the external jugular vein, the internal jugular vein, and the vertebral vein and joins with the internal thoracic vein to form the brachiocephalic vein.
It does not drain blood from the face and scalp directly.
Choice D. Cephalic vein.
This is wrong because the cephalic vein is a vein that runs along the lateral side of the arm from the hand to the shoulder and empties into the axillary vein.
It does not drain blood from the face and scalp at all.
Normal ranges for blood pressure vary depending on age, gender, health status, and other factors, but a general guideline is that systolic blood pressure (the pressure when the heart contracts) should be less than 120 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure (the pressure when the heart relaxes) should be less than 80 mmHg.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is a hormone secreted by the heart when the atria are stretched by high blood pressure or volume.
ANP has multiple effects, such as increasing urine and salt excretion, lowering blood pressure, and opposing the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
Therefore, ANP inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone, which are hormones that increase blood pressure and sodium retention.
Choice A is wrong because ANP is not released from the adrenal cortex but from the cardiac atria.
ANP does not stimulate atrial hormones but rather inhibits them.
Choice B is wrong because ANP is not stimulated to release when blood volume decreases, but when it increases.
ANP acts to reduce blood volume by promoting diuresis and natriuresis.
Choice C is wrong because ANP does not raise blood pressure, but lowers it. ANP acts as a vasodilator and reduces peripheral resistance.
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