The client is a 49-year-old who reports flu-like symptoms including fever and chest congestion for 4 days. He came to the emergency department (ED last night when he was having more difficulty breathing. He has a history of one-half pack a day cigarette smoking for 20 years. He has no significant medical or surgical history
The client has an oxygen saturation of 96% on 8 L simple face mask. The nurse assesses the client, and he is feeling less restless and anxious. His heart rate is now 79 bpm, blood pressure 119/73 mmHg, and respiratory rate 24.
What are the 3 most important goals that would help the nurse evaluate the treatment of this client at discharge?
The client will report pain less than 3/10
The client will have quit smoking
The client will remain free of skin breakdown
The client will maintain oxygen saturation of 96% without supplemental oxygen
The client will be afebrile for 24 hours
Correct Answer : B,D,E
A. While managing pain is important, the client did not report significant pain, making it a lower priority in this scenario.
B. Quitting smoking is crucial for the client's respiratory health, especially given the history of smoking and current respiratory symptoms.
C. There is no indication that the client is at risk of skin breakdown; thus, it is not a priority in the immediate discharge plan.
D. Maintaining an oxygen saturation of 96% without supplemental oxygen is a direct indicator of improved respiratory function and a key goal for discharge.
E. Being afebrile for 24 hours would indicate that the infection is under control, which is a primary concern for discharge after presenting with flu-like symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Checking for a distended bladder is the priority action because a distended bladder can contribute to uterine atony and excessive bleeding postpartum.
B. Reviewing the hemoglobin to determine hemorrhage may be necessary, but assessing for a distended bladder takes precedence as it can directly affect uterine tone.
C. Massaging the uterus to decrease atony may be appropriate if the uterus is boggy, but in this scenario, the uterus is firm.
D. Increasing intravenous infusion may be necessary if the client is hypovolemic, but assessing for a distended bladder should be done first to address potential causes of uterine atony.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A: An adolescent with multiple contusions due to a fall that occurred 2 days ago can be managed by the PN as the condition is stable and does not require the advanced skills of an RN.
B: A 75-year-old client with renal calculi who requires urine straining can also be assigned to the PN because urine straining is a task within the PN's scope of practice.
C: A 30-year-old depressed client who admits to suicide ideation requires the expertise of an RN due to the need for continuous assessment, potential for crisis intervention, and the complexity of care needed.
D: A 64-year-old client who had a total hip replacement the previous day would typically be stable post-operation and could be managed by the PN, with the RN available for any complications that may arise.
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