A client is unable to void following a procedure, so the nurse obtains a prescription to perform a straight catheterization. After inserting the catheter, the nurse observes that the client has an immediate output of 500 mL of clear yellow urine. Which action should the nurse implement next?
Remove the catheter and palpate the client’s bladder for residual distention.
Allow the bladder to empty completely or up to 1,000 mL of urine.
Clamp the catheter for thirty minutes and then resume draining.
Remove the catheter and replace with an indwelling catheter.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A: Remove the catheter and palpate the client’s bladder for residual distention. This is not the best action, as it may cause discomfort and trauma to the client. The catheter should not be removed until the bladder is fully emptied or up to 1,000 mL of urine is drained, as removing it too soon may cause urinary retention or infection.
Choice B: Allow the bladder to empty completely or up to 1,000 mL of urine. This is the best action, as it can prevent bladder spasms, overdistention, or rupture. The nurse should monitor the urine output and color, and document the amount and characteristics of urine drained.
Choice C: Clamp the catheter for thirty minutes and then resume draining. This is not the best action, as it may cause pain and discomfort to the client. The catheter should not be clamped unless ordered by the healthcare provider, as clamping it may increase the risk of infection or bladder damage.
Choice D: Remove the catheter and replace with an indwelling catheter. This is not the best action, as it may cause unnecessary exposure and trauma to the client. The catheter should not be replaced unless ordered by the healthcare provider, as replacing it may increase the risk of infection or urethral injury.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: A 16-year-old client diagnosed with major depression who refuses to participate in group does not require the nurse's immediate attention. Depression is a mood disorder that causes persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest. Refusing to participate in group may indicate low motivation, social withdrawal, or poor self-esteem, which are common symptoms of depression. The nurse should respect the client's preference and offer alternative activities or individual therapy.
Choice B reason:This client requires immediate intervention because pacing can be a sign of agitation, restlessness, or escalating mania. Clients with bipolar disorder in a manic phase may exhibit increased energy, impulsivity, irritability, and even aggression. If not addressed promptly, this behavior could escalate to disruptive outbursts, impulsive actions, or even violence toward themselves or others. The nurse should intervene by using calm communication, redirection, and possibly medication if prescribed to help de-escalate the situation and ensure safety.
Choice Creason:This scenario involves peer conflict, which is important to address, but it does not necessarily indicate an immediate risk of harm. Clients with antisocial behavior often engage in conflict due to manipulative or confrontational tendencies, but being yelled at does not mean they are in immediate danger. The nurse should monitor the situation and intervene to prevent escalation, but other safety concerns take priority.
Choice D reason: A 14-year-old client with anorexia nervosa who is refusing to eat the evening snack does not require the nurse's immediate attention. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that causes extreme restriction of food intake and fear of weight gain. Refusing to eat the evening snack may indicate distorted body image, dietary rules, or anxiety, which are common factors of anorexia nervosa. The nurse should encourage the client to eat and provide support and education.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B is correct because initiating a continuous infusion of IV fluids per prescription has highest priority for an infant with pyloric stenosis who is scheduled for a pyloromyotomy. Pyloric stenosis causes projectile vomiting and dehydration, which can lead to metabolic alkalosis and electrolyte imbalance. The infant needs IV fluids to correct these abnormalities and prevent complications.
Choice A is incorrect because marking an outline of the “olive-shaped” mass in the right epigastric area is not a priority action for an infant with pyloric stenosis who is scheduled for a pyloromyotomy. The “olive-shaped” mass is a palpable sign of pyloric stenosis, but it does not require any intervention before surgery.
Choice C is incorrect because monitoring amount of intake and infant's response to feedings is not a priority action for an infant with pyloric stenosis who is scheduled for a pyloromyotomy. The infant may have difficulty feeding due to vomiting and gastric distension, which can worsen their dehydration and malnutrition. The infant may need to be kept NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery.
Choice D is incorrect because instructing parents regarding care of the incisional area is not a priority action for an infant with pyloric stenosis who is scheduled for a pyloromyotomy. The incisional area will need proper care after surgery, but this can be taught later when the infant is stable and ready for discharge.
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