The client being admitted with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) is reporting a headache.
The client is allergic to morphine, iodine, and codeine. Which healthcare provider order should the nurse ask to clarify?
Schedule a CT scan with contrast in the a.m.
Provide the client with a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet.
Take the client's vital signs per protocol.
Administer acetaminophen 650 mg PO for headache.
The Correct Answer is A
The clinical scenario involves a client experiencing neurological deficits from a transient ischemic attack who presents with specific pharmacological and chemical allergies. Applying knowledge of cross-sensitivity and radiopaque dye composition is essential to identify risks associated with iodine-based contrast media and morphine-codeine hypersensitivity.
Choice A rationale
Computed tomography scans with contrast utilize iodine-based dyes to enhance vascular visualization. Since the client has a documented iodine allergy, this order poses a significant risk of anaphylaxis or severe hypersensitivity reactions and requires urgent clarification with the provider.
Choice B rationale
Transient ischemic attacks are often linked to atherosclerosis and hypertension. A low-fat, low-cholesterol diet is a standard therapeutic intervention to manage lipid levels and prevent further plaque accumulation, making this a safe and appropriate non-pharmacological order.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring vital signs is a fundamental nursing responsibility during the acute phase of a neurological event. Frequent assessments help detect changes in blood pressure or heart rate, which are critical for maintaining cerebral perfusion and identifying potential deterioration.
Choice D rationale
Acetaminophen is a non-opioid analgesic that does not share chemical properties with morphine or codeine. Because it is not an opiate or salicylate, it is safe to administer for a headache in a patient allergic to opioids.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Acute pancreatitis involves the autodigestion of the pancreas by activated enzymes. Knowledge of systemic inflammatory response and gastric acid management is necessary to understand the rationale for bowel rest and the prevention of secondary complications like stress ulcers.
Choice A rationale
Early ambulation is generally encouraged but not a priority during the acute, painful phase of pancreatitis. The client often requires bed rest to decrease metabolic demands and minimize the stimulation of pancreatic enzyme secretion and activity.
Choice B rationale
Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used to decrease gastric acid secretion. In pancreatitis, reducing acid prevents it from entering the duodenum and stimulating the release of secretin, which would otherwise trigger further pancreatic enzyme production.
Choice C rationale
Pancrelipase consists of digestive enzymes meant for chronic pancreatitis or pancreatic insufficiency. In acute pancreatitis, giving enzymes orally would further stimulate the inflamed organ and worsen the condition; the client must remain nothing by mouth.
Choice D rationale
A low-residue diet is inappropriate for acute pancreatitis. The initial treatment must be strict bowel rest (NPO) to stop all stimulus to the pancreas, allowing the inflammation to subside before reintroducing any oral intake or nutrients..
Correct Answer is ["10"]
Explanation
Step 1 is (1 unit ÷ 10 units) × 100 mL.
Step 2 is 0.1 × 100 mL.
Step 3 is 10 mL.
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