The physician prescribes levofloxacin 300 mg IV every 6 hours for a client diagnosed with sepsis.
The client weighs 43.5 kg. The nursing drug guide recommends a maximum of 5 - 7.5 mg/kg/dose.
What is the maximum safe dose for this client in mg/dose? Round answer to the nearest hundredth.
The Correct Answer is ["326.25"]
Step 1 is 43.5 kg × 7.5 mg/kg.
Final calculated answer is 326.25
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This scenario requires evaluating medical orders against a client's specific allergy profile to morphine, iodine, and codeine. Knowledge of hypersensitivity reactions to intravenous contrast media and the safe selection of analgesics is necessary to ensure patient safety and prevent potentially fatal allergic responses.
Choice A rationale
Iodine is a primary component of many intravenous contrast agents used in imaging. The client's documented iodine allergy necessitates questioning this order to avoid life-threatening systemic reactions, such as angioedema or airway obstruction, typically associated with radiopaque medium exposure.
Choice B rationale
Therapeutic lifestyle changes, including dietary modifications, are foundational in stroke prevention. Reducing dietary fats and cholesterol helps mitigate cardiovascular risk factors, supporting the long-term management of transient ischemic attacks without conflicting with the client's specific known drug allergies.
Choice C rationale
Protocol-based vital sign monitoring ensures the early detection of neurological or hemodynamic instability. This order is a standard of care for any patient presenting with cerebrovascular symptoms and carries no risk related to the client's iodine or opioid sensitivities.
Choice D rationale
Acetaminophen belongs to the para-aminophenol derivative class of medications. It does not possess the structural components of phenanthrene alkaloids like morphine or codeine, making it a safe alternative for treating mild to moderate pain in opioid-allergic individuals..
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Disseminated intravascular coagulation involves systemic activation of coagulation, leading to microthrombi formation. Assessing for organ dysfunction requires understanding how thrombotic microangiopathy causes ischemia in high-vascularity organs, specifically focusing on renal and hepatic biomarkers and physiological changes in perfusion.
Choice A rationale
Thrombotic microangiopathy in the lungs would typically cause increased respiratory rates and decreased oxygen saturation due to impaired gas exchange. Decreased rates and normal saturation do not indicate the ischemic damage associated with microvascular clotting.
Choice B rationale
The kidneys are highly susceptible to microthrombi. Elevated BUN (normal 10 to 20 mg/dL) and creatinine (normal 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL) indicate acute kidney injury caused by fibrin deposition and subsequent ischemia in the glomerular capillaries.
Choice C rationale
While bilirubin might rise due to hemolysis, white blood cell counts are not a primary indicator of thrombotic organ dysfunction. Bilirubin increases are more common in hepatic failure or red blood cell fragmentation during DIC.
Choice D rationale
DIC typically presents with abnormal coagulation profiles, including prolonged PT and PTT and low fibrinogen. Normal profiles would contradict the diagnosis of DIC, even if transaminases were elevated due to localized hepatic microvascular occlusion.
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