A nurse is teaching a client who has septic shock about the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

"DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage."

"DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen."

"DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency."

"DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. "DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage": This statement is not accurate. While heparin may be used in the treatment of DIC, it is not a lifelong therapy, and the approach to treatment depends on the underlying cause.

B. "DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen": This is the correct answer. DIC is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the clotting cascade, leading to the formation of microthrombi throughout the body. Abnormal coagulation involves the consumption of clotting factors, including fibrinogen.

C. "DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency": This statement is not accurate. DIC is not a genetic disorder, and it is not primarily related to vitamin K deficiency. It is an acquired condition often associated with severe infections, sepsis, trauma, or other critical illnesses.

D. "DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count": This statement is not accurate. In DIC, there is often a decrease in platelet count due to consumption and activation of platelets in the widespread formation of microthrombi.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Carvedilol:Carvedilol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptors. Beta-2 blockade can lead to bronchoconstriction, which can exacerbate asthma symptoms. Clarification is needed to see if a cardioselective beta-blocker (like metoprolol) would be safer.

B. Captopril:Captopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used in heart failure to reduce blood pressure and decrease the workload on the heart. It does not have bronchoconstrictive effects and is safe for use in clients with asthma.

C. Isosorbide dinitrate:Isosorbide dinitrate is a nitrate used to manage heart failure by dilating blood vessels and reducing the workload of the heart. It has no effect on bronchial smooth muscle and is not contraindicated in asthma, so no clarification is needed.

D. Fluticasone:Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid used to manage asthma by reducing inflammation in the airways. It is beneficial in clients with asthma and does not pose a risk to clients with heart failure. There is no need to clarify this medication.

A. Platelets 156,000/mm³ B. Fibrinogen 85 mg/dL C. PT 12 seconds D. PTT 64 seconds

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Platelets 156,000/mm³: This platelet count is within the normal range (normal range: 150,000 to 400,000/mm³). Although disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) can lead to thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), the platelet count in this scenario is not indicative of DIC.

B. Fibrinogen 85 mg/dL: This is the correct answer. A decreased fibrinogen level is often seen in DIC. Fibrinogen is consumed in the formation of microclots, and a low level may indicate ongoing coagulation.

C. PT 12 seconds: The prothrombin time (PT) is within the normal range. In DIC, the PT may be prolonged due to the consumption of clotting factors, but in this case, the PT is normal.

D. PTT 64 seconds: The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is prolonged, which can be an indication of DIC. However, the more specific indicator in this scenario is the low fibrinogen level.

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A nurse is teaching a client who has septic shock about the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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