A nurse is teaching a client who has septic shock about the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
"DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage."
"DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen."
"DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency."
"DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count."
The Correct Answer is B
A. "DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage": This statement is not accurate. While heparin may be used in the treatment of DIC, it is not a lifelong therapy, and the approach to treatment depends on the underlying cause.
B. "DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen": This is the correct answer. DIC is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the clotting cascade, leading to the formation of microthrombi throughout the body. Abnormal coagulation involves the consumption of clotting factors, including fibrinogen.
C. "DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency": This statement is not accurate. DIC is not a genetic disorder, and it is not primarily related to vitamin K deficiency. It is an acquired condition often associated with severe infections, sepsis, trauma, or other critical illnesses.
D. "DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count": This statement is not accurate. In DIC, there is often a decrease in platelet count due to consumption and activation of platelets in the widespread formation of microthrombi.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Wearing loose, non-constricting stockings: This instruction is not recommended for a client with DVT. Compression stockings, which are snug-fitting, may be prescribed to prevent DVT, but loose stockings would not provide the necessary compression.
B. Applying cool compresses to her legs: Cool compresses are not typically recommended for DVT. Warm compresses may be used to improve blood circulation, but cold compresses may not be suitable.
C. Taking an NSAID tablet daily: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are not typically recommended for individuals with DVT, especially when on anticoagulant therapy, as they may increase the risk of bleeding.
D. Flexing her knees and feet frequently: This is the correct answer. Encouraging the client to flex her knees and feet frequently helps promote blood circulation and reduces the risk of venous stasis, which can contribute to the formation of blood clots. It is a beneficial measure for clients with DVT.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Dependent edema: Dependent edema is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure. In left-sided heart failure, fluid accumulates in the lungs, leading to pulmonary symptoms such as cough and frothy sputum.
B. Jugular distention: Jugular distention is often associated with right-sided heart failure due to impaired blood flow from the right atrium into the right ventricle. It is less likely to be prominent in left-sided heart failure.
C. Nocturnal polyuria: Nocturnal polyuria (increased urination at night) is a common symptom of heart failure, but it is not specific to left-sided heart failure. It can be seen in both left- and right-sided heart failure.
D. Frothy sputum: This is the correct answer. Left-sided heart failure can lead to pulmonary congestion, resulting in the accumulation of fluid in the lungs. Frothy, pink-tinged sputum is a characteristic finding in left-sided heart failure and is often associated with pulmonary edema.
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