The nurse plans care for a client with a traumatic brain injury who exhibits signs of post-concussion syndrome, including headaches, irritability, and sleep disturbances.
Which strategy should the nurse include in the client's care plan?
Encourage a structured routine with regular sleep patterns.
Provide educational materials on neuroimaging techniques.
Recommend increased physical activity to enhance recovery.
Suggest a high-calorie diet to improve overall health.
The Correct Answer is A
Managing post-concussion syndrome involves supporting neurological recovery through environmental and lifestyle modifications. Knowledge of brain rest, neuroplasticity, and the importance of circadian rhythms must be applied to mitigate symptoms like headaches, irritability, and persistent sleep disturbances.
Choice A rationale
A structured routine minimizes cognitive load and sensory overload, which are triggers for post-concussion headaches. Consistent sleep hygiene promotes neurological healing by regulating neurotransmitters and allowing the glymphatic system to clear metabolic waste from brain tissues.
Choice B rationale
Education on neuroimaging focuses on diagnostic tools rather than symptom management. While understanding scans may reduce anxiety, it does not provide the practical behavioral interventions required to alleviate the physiological symptoms of headaches and irritability.
Choice C rationale
Premature increase in physical activity can exacerbate post-concussion symptoms by increasing intracranial pressure and metabolic demand. Recovery requires a gradual return to activity, as overexertion can lead to a significant setback in neurological stabilization.
Choice D rationale
While adequate nutrition is important for general health, a high-calorie diet is not a specific treatment for post-concussion syndrome. Management focuses on neuro-rest and avoiding stimulants or triggers rather than increasing caloric intake to treat irritability.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","G"]
Explanation
Splenic rupture involves internal hemorrhage and peritoneal irritation. Assessing this requires understanding Kehr sign and signs of hypovolemic shock. Knowledge of hemodynamic parameters and abdominal symptoms is essential to identify occult bleeding and impending cardiovascular collapse following trauma.
Choice A rationale
Splenic injury causes blood to accumulate in the peritoneal cavity, leading to abdominal pain and distension. This irritation of the peritoneum is a hallmark sign of internal organ damage following blunt force trauma to the left side.
Choice B rationale
Headaches are not typically associated with splenic injury unless there is concurrent head trauma. While shock can cause lightheadedness, a primary headache is not a specific or supportive clinical indicator for an isolated splenic laceration or rupture.
Choice C rationale
Hypotension occurs as a result of significant internal bleeding and decreased circulating blood volume. Blood pressure falls below the normal systolic range of 90 to 120 mmHg as the body fails to compensate for acute blood loss.
Choice D rationale
Tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism where the heart rate increases above 100 beats per minute to maintain cardiac output during hemorrhage. It is often one of the earliest signs of volume depletion and internal splenic bleeding.
Choice E rationale
Polyuria, or excessive urination, is not a sign of splenic injury or hypovolemia. In fact, blood loss usually leads to oliguria, where urine output drops below 30 mL per hour as the kidneys conserve fluid and sodium.
Choice F rationale
Wide pulse pressure is often seen in conditions like aortic regurgitation or increased intracranial pressure. Splenic rupture causes hypovolemia, which typically results in a narrow pulse pressure as the systolic pressure falls and diastolic pressure stays.
Choice G rationale
Nausea is a common symptom of peritoneal irritation and the systemic response to acute internal bleeding. The presence of blood in the abdominal cavity can stimulate the vagus nerve and gastrointestinal distress, leading to vomiting or nausea.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E","F","H"]
Explanation
This case involves a client showing signs of a suspected pulmonary embolism, including pleuritic pain and hypoxia. Managing this medical emergency requires prioritizing diagnostic imaging, maintaining oxygenation, ensuring vascular access for stabilization, and monitoring cardiac and respiratory status to prevent collapse.
Choice A rationale
Computed tomography pulmonary angiography is the gold standard for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism. It allows for direct visualization of the pulmonary vasculature to identify blockages, which is essential for initiating the appropriate life-saving anticoagulation or thrombolytic therapy.
Choice B rationale
Placing a client with dyspnea and hypoxia in a flat supine position is contraindicated. This position increases the work of breathing and reduces lung expansion. The nurse should instead use a high-Fowler position to optimize ventilation-perfusion matching.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining venous access is a critical priority for any client with suspected pulmonary embolism. It ensures that emergency medications, such as intravenous heparin or fluids for hemodynamic support, can be administered immediately if the client's condition rapidly deteriorates or worsens.
Choice D rationale
Drawing laboratory tests like CBC and coagulation studies provides essential baseline data. CBC helps rule out infection or anemia, while coagulation studies like PT, PTT, and INR are required before starting systemic anticoagulants to ensure safe dosing.
Choice E rationale
Continuous cardiac monitoring is vital because a pulmonary embolism can cause acute right ventricular strain and lead to arrhythmias or sudden cardiac arrest. Early detection of heart rate changes or rhythm disturbances allows for rapid clinical intervention.
Choice F rationale
Given the client's current SpO2 of 90 percent, which is below the normal range of 95 to 100 percent, continuous monitoring is necessary. This ensures the nurse can titrate oxygen therapy and immediately identify further respiratory decline.
Choice G rationale
Nurses cannot independently increase medication dosages. Adjusting apixaban from 5 mg to 10 mg requires a specific provider order. Furthermore, in an acute suspected PE, parenteral anticoagulation like heparin is typically preferred over oral medications for faster effect.
Choice H rationale
Applying oxygen via nasal cannula or mask is an immediate priority to treat the client's hypoxia. Supplemental oxygen helps maintain cellular oxygenation and reduce the workload on the heart while further diagnostic testing and definitive treatments are arranged..
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