A nurse is evaluating a telemetry strip that shows an irregularly irregular rhythm, no identifiable P waves, and a ventricular rate of 110/min.
The client reports palpitations. How should the nurse document this strip in the medical record?
Atrial Fibrillation.
Sinus Tachycardia with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute.
First degree heart block.
Ventricular Tachycardia.
The Correct Answer is A
This scenario requires the application of electrocardiography interpretation skills to identify specific cardiac arrhythmias based on rhythm regularity, presence of P waves, and heart rate. Recognizing atrial fibrillation is essential for determining appropriate anticoagulation and rate control interventions for telemetry clients.
Choice A rationale
Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm and a lack of discernible P waves. The rapid, disorganized electrical activity in the atria leads to ineffective pumping and increased risk for thromboembolic events or symptomatic palpitations.
Choice B rationale
Sinus tachycardia follows a regular rhythm with identifiable P waves preceding every QRS complex. The rate is typically between 101 and 150 beats per minute. This does not match the irregularly irregular rhythm or absent P waves described.
Choice C rationale
First degree heart block involves a delayed conduction through the atrioventricular node, resulting in a prolonged PR interval greater than 0.20 seconds. However, the rhythm remains regular with a 1 to 1 ratio of P waves to QRS.
Choice D rationale
Ventricular tachycardia presents as three or more consecutive premature ventricular contractions with a rate usually exceeding 100 per minute. It shows wide, bizarre QRS complexes and is typically a regular rhythm, which is inconsistent with this client strip.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","F","G","H"]
Explanation
Evaluating post-operative recovery for a total hip arthroplasty requires distinguishing between expected healing milestones and potential complications related to anticoagulation or nutritional status. Knowledge of surgical recovery timelines, respiratory stability following a pulmonary embolism, and signs of therapeutic drug toxicity is essential for accurate assessment.
Choice A rationale: Being able to perform activities of daily living independently indicates successful functional rehabilitation and improved mobility. This progress demonstrates that the surgical hip is stabilizing and that the client is regaining the muscle strength and coordination required for self-care.
Choice B rationale: A weight loss of 27 pounds in a short period since hospitalization is excessive and concerning rather than a sign of progress. Rapid weight loss in a post-surgical geriatric client can impair wound healing and suggest poor nutritional intake or underlying systemic issues.
Choice C rationale: Walking independently with a cane while maintaining full weight-bearing status is a key indicator of orthopedic recovery. It reflects adequate stability of the prosthetic joint and successful integration of physical therapy goals following the right total hip arthroplasty.
Choice D rationale: Reports of severe bruising on the arm while taking warfarin are signs of potential anticoagulant toxicity or an elevated international normalized ratio. This finding requires investigation of bleeding risk rather than being considered a positive sign of healing or progress.
Choice E rationale: Increased pain in the non-surgical left hip indicates the progression of degenerative joint disease in another area. While it identifies a future surgical need, it represents a decline in musculoskeletal health rather than an improvement in the current recovery.
Choice F rationale: The absence of new shortness of breath or chest pain suggests that the previously diagnosed pulmonary embolism is resolving and that no new thrombotic events have occurred. This respiratory stability is a primary indicator of successful medical management and recovery.
Choice G rationale: An oxygen saturation of 95% on room air is within the normal range and indicates that the client is maintaining adequate gas exchange without supplemental support. This finding confirms the resolution of the respiratory compromise associated with the earlier pulmonary embolism.
Choice H rationale: An incision that is healed with a hairline scar indicates excellent primary intention healing and a lack of infection. The resolution of the surgical wound is a fundamental requirement for the overall success of the total hip arthroplasty procedure.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This scenario requires applying knowledge of burn pathophysiology, specifically the emergent phase and fluid resuscitation. Understanding clinical indicators of hypovolemia, such as heart rate and urine output, is essential to recognize inadequate perfusion and potential hypovolemic shock.
Choice A rationale
Normal adult respirations range from 12 to 20 breaths per minute. A pulse of 60 bpm is at the low end of the normal range of 60 to 100 bpm, which does not suggest hypovolemic shock.
Choice B rationale
A temperature of 98.4 F is within the normal range of 97 F to 99 F. While a pulse of 106 bpm is slightly tachycardic, it is not a definitive indicator of critical fluid deficit.
Choice C rationale
A blood pressure of 92/60 mm Hg is borderline low, but a pulse of 100 bpm is at the upper limit of normal. These findings are less concerning than those indicating direct organ hypoperfusion.
Choice D rationale
Tachycardia of 130 bpm and urine output below 30 mL/hr signify inadequate fluid resuscitation. Normal urine output is at least 0.5 mL/kg/hr, or 30 mL/hr, indicating decreased renal perfusion and significant hypovolemia in burn patients.
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