A client with chronic kidney disease develops hypocalcemia.
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with this condition?
Hypokalemia.
Hypernatremia.
Hyperphosphatemia.
Hyponatremia.
The Correct Answer is C
Managing chronic kidney disease requires understanding the reciprocal relationship between calcium and phosphorus. Knowledge of renal osteodystrophy, vitamin D activation, and the role of the parathyroid hormone in mineral homeostasis is essential to identify the associated electrolyte shift.
Choice A rationale
Hypokalemia is not the primary association with hypocalcemia in kidney failure. Chronic kidney disease usually results in hyperkalemia, where potassium exceeds 5.0 mEq/L, because the failing kidneys cannot effectively excrete excess potassium ions into the urine.
Choice B rationale
Hypernatremia is an elevation of sodium above 145 mEq/L and is not directly linked to the calcium-phosphorus axis. While fluid balance is impaired in renal failure, sodium levels vary based on fluid volume status rather than hypocalcemia.
Choice C rationale
In kidney failure, phosphorus excretion decreases, leading to hyperphosphatemia. High serum phosphorus (above 4.5 mg/dL) binds with calcium, causing hypocalcemia (below 8.5 mg/dL). Additionally, decreased vitamin D activation in the kidneys further reduces calcium absorption from the gut.
Choice D rationale
Hyponatremia, or sodium below 135 mEq/L, often results from fluid overload in renal patients but is not the metabolic driver of low calcium. The hallmark mineral imbalance involves the inverse relationship specifically between serum phosphate and ionized calcium.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Neurological posturing indicates severe brain injury and helps localize the level of damage. Applying knowledge of motor pathway dysfunction, specifically the corticospinal tract, is necessary to distinguish between flexion and extension patterns seen in comatose patients.
Choice A rationale
Decorticate posturing results from damage to the corticospinal tract above the red nucleus. It is characterized by adduction of the arms, internal rotation, and flexion at the elbows, wrists, and fingers, while legs are extended and internally rotated.
Choice B rationale
This description does not match a standard neurological posturing pattern. Rigidity and flexion are seen in decorticate posturing, but "back hunched over" and "supination" of arms are not typical descriptors for these specific upper motor neuron indicators.
Choice C rationale
Supination of the arms is not a component of pathological posturing. Both decorticate and decerebrate posturing typically involve some form of pronation or flexion. Dorsiflexion is also not standard, as plantar flexion is commonly seen in both.
Choice D rationale
This describes decerebrate posturing, which indicates more severe damage to the brainstem or midbrain. It is characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, pronation of the arms, and plantar flexion of the feet with outward rotation.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E","F","H"]
Explanation
This case involves a client showing signs of a suspected pulmonary embolism, including pleuritic pain and hypoxia. Managing this medical emergency requires prioritizing diagnostic imaging, maintaining oxygenation, ensuring vascular access for stabilization, and monitoring cardiac and respiratory status to prevent collapse.
Choice A rationale
Computed tomography pulmonary angiography is the gold standard for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism. It allows for direct visualization of the pulmonary vasculature to identify blockages, which is essential for initiating the appropriate life-saving anticoagulation or thrombolytic therapy.
Choice B rationale
Placing a client with dyspnea and hypoxia in a flat supine position is contraindicated. This position increases the work of breathing and reduces lung expansion. The nurse should instead use a high-Fowler position to optimize ventilation-perfusion matching.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining venous access is a critical priority for any client with suspected pulmonary embolism. It ensures that emergency medications, such as intravenous heparin or fluids for hemodynamic support, can be administered immediately if the client's condition rapidly deteriorates or worsens.
Choice D rationale
Drawing laboratory tests like CBC and coagulation studies provides essential baseline data. CBC helps rule out infection or anemia, while coagulation studies like PT, PTT, and INR are required before starting systemic anticoagulants to ensure safe dosing.
Choice E rationale
Continuous cardiac monitoring is vital because a pulmonary embolism can cause acute right ventricular strain and lead to arrhythmias or sudden cardiac arrest. Early detection of heart rate changes or rhythm disturbances allows for rapid clinical intervention.
Choice F rationale
Given the client's current SpO2 of 90 percent, which is below the normal range of 95 to 100 percent, continuous monitoring is necessary. This ensures the nurse can titrate oxygen therapy and immediately identify further respiratory decline.
Choice G rationale
Nurses cannot independently increase medication dosages. Adjusting apixaban from 5 mg to 10 mg requires a specific provider order. Furthermore, in an acute suspected PE, parenteral anticoagulation like heparin is typically preferred over oral medications for faster effect.
Choice H rationale
Applying oxygen via nasal cannula or mask is an immediate priority to treat the client's hypoxia. Supplemental oxygen helps maintain cellular oxygenation and reduce the workload on the heart while further diagnostic testing and definitive treatments are arranged..
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