The nurse is caring for a client with severe thrombocytopenia who is scheduled for a bone marrow biopsy.
The provider prescribes a platelet transfusion for the client. When should the nurse anticipate administering the platelets?
Slowly during the bone marrow biopsy procedure.
Immediately following the completion of the bone marrow biopsy.
Immediately before the start of the bone marrow biopsy.
1 to 2 hours before the bone marrow biopsy begins.
The Correct Answer is C
The clinical scenarios involve managing procedural safety in hematology, post-surgical electrolyte monitoring, emergency cardiac stabilization for potassium imbalance, and surgical intervention for burn-induced compartment syndrome. Knowledge of hemostasis, calcium metabolism, membrane potential stabilization, and tissue perfusion mechanics is required to provide safe nursing care.
Choice A rationale
Administering platelets during a procedure is impractical and increases the risk of bleeding before the infusion takes effect. Platelets must be present in the vascular system prior to tissue trauma to facilitate immediate clot formation at the site.
Choice B rationale
Post-procedural administration fails to address the high risk of hemorrhage during the biopsy itself. In severe thrombocytopenia, where counts are often below 20,000 cells/uL, the primary goal is pre-emptive stabilization to prevent uncontrolled internal bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Infusing platelets immediately before the biopsy ensures peak circulating levels during the most invasive phase. This timing optimizes the aggregation of platelets at the puncture site, mitigating the risk of hematoma or severe hemorrhage in high-risk patients.
Choice D rationale
Platelets have a short half-life and are rapidly consumed or sequestered. Administering them 1 to 2 hours early may lead to decreased efficacy at the actual time of the biopsy, increasing the risk of procedural bleeding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This scenario involves end of life care and ethical communication regarding physiological changes during the dying process. Knowledge of palliative care principles and the natural slowing of metabolic processes is required to address the family's concerns and provide reassurance.
Choice A rationale
Explaining that anorexia is a natural part of the dying process validates the physiological reality that the body no longer requires fuel. Discussing aspiration risk helps the wife understand that forced feeding could cause harm or discomfort.
Choice B rationale
Nutritional consults and preferred foods are ineffective when a client is actively dying. The focus shifts from nutritional maintenance to comfort. Interventions aimed at increasing caloric intake do not prolong life or improve quality at this terminal stage.
Choice C rationale
While keeping foods available seems supportive, it can create pressure on the client and frustration for the family. In the final stages of life, many clients lack the physical strength or reflex capability to safely consume bedside snacks.
Choice D rationale
Encouraging the wife to feed the client as much as possible increases the risk of choking and aspiration. It places an undue burden on the caregiver and may cause the client physical distress, as their digestive system slows.
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
Managing disseminated intravascular coagulation involves identifying secondary complications of microvascular thrombosis and hemorrhage. Knowledge of coagulation pathways and end-organ perfusion assessment is required to differentiate between laboratory markers of the disease process and clinical indicators of worsening organ failure.
Choice A rationale
A prolonged prothrombin time, where the normal range is 11 to 13.5 seconds, is a diagnostic laboratory finding for this condition. However, it represents a hematological marker of the clotting cascade exhaustion rather than organ dysfunction.
Choice B rationale
Elevated D-dimer, with a normal range usually less than 500 ng/mL, indicates active fibrinolysis. While it confirms the presence of the disorder and ongoing clot breakdown, it is a laboratory value, not a clinical cue.
Choice C rationale
Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds indicates poor peripheral tissue perfusion. In this condition, microthrombi obstruct small vessels, leading to ischemia. A refill of 5 seconds signals significant circulatory compromise and potential progression toward multi-organ failure.
Choice D rationale
Petechiae and purpura are classic integumentary signs of bleeding due to thrombocytopenia and clotting factor depletion. While they signify active bleeding, they are considered standard symptoms of the disease rather than specific markers of organ dysfunction.
Choice E rationale
Decreased urine output, typically defined as less than 30 mL per hour, indicates impaired renal perfusion or acute kidney injury. This occurs due to microvascular thrombi in the renal capillaries, signaling significant organ dysfunction.
Choice F rationale
A normal platelet count, ranging from 150,000 to 450,000 cells/mm, would indicate improvement rather than worsening. In active cases, platelets are rapidly consumed, leading to severe thrombocytopenia as the body attempts to form micro-clots throughout the vasculature.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.