The nurse completes teaching the client with a deep partial thickness burn about silver sulfadiazine.
Which client statements indicate that the teaching was effective? Select all that apply.
I never should apply a dressing after applying silver sulfadiazine.
Silver sulfadiazine will prevent an infection of the burned area.
I apply the cream only to the opened areas of the burned area.
I use a tongue blade to remove the old ointment before reapplying.
The cream is dark colored and cannot be removed with water.
Silver sulfadiazine is effective against bacteria and yeast.
Correct Answer : B,C,F
This question tests knowledge of silver sulfadiazine, a topical antimicrobial used in burn care. Understanding its mechanism, application techniques, and properties is necessary to evaluate the accuracy of the client's statements regarding its use and therapeutic effects.
Choice A rationale
Silver sulfadiazine is typically applied in a thin layer and may be left open to air or covered with a light dressing. Instructing that a dressing should never be used is incorrect and clinically inaccurate.
Choice B rationale
Silver sulfadiazine is a broad-spectrum antimicrobial agent. Its primary purpose is to prevent and treat sepsis in second-degree and third-degree burns by inhibiting the growth of microorganisms that could lead to systemic or local infection.
Choice C rationale
The medication should be applied to burned areas requiring antimicrobial protection. Applying the cream specifically to open areas prevents unnecessary skin irritation on intact skin while providing targeted treatment to vulnerable, damaged tissues prone to bacterial colonization.
Choice D rationale
Old ointment should be removed before reapplying a new layer, but a tongue blade is used for application, not removal. Removal is generally done by gentle cleansing with water or saline to avoid trauma.
Choice E rationale
Silver sulfadiazine is a white, water-soluble cream. It is not dark in color and is easily removed with water. The statement that it cannot be removed with water indicates a misunderstanding of the product's properties.
Choice F rationale
Silver sulfadiazine has effective antimicrobial properties against a wide range of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, as well as yeast such as Candida albicans. This broad coverage makes it a standard choice for burn wound management..
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Chronic pancreatitis involves long-term inflammation of the pancreas leading to permanent structural damage and functional impairment. Knowledge of pancreatic enzyme dynamics, calcium sequestration during fat necrosis, and the resulting endocrine dysfunction is essential to identify clinical manifestations and laboratory abnormalities.
Choice A rationale
Chronic inflammation causes cellular destruction and leakage of enzymes into the bloodstream. During acute exacerbations of chronic pancreatitis, serum amylase levels rise above the normal range of 23 to 85 U/L due to pancreatic ductal obstruction.
Choice B rationale
Fat necrosis leads to the release of free fatty acids, which bind with ionized calcium in a process called saponification. This results in hypocalcemia, where serum calcium levels fall below the normal 9.0 to 10.5 mg/dL.
Choice C rationale
Serum lipase is highly specific to the pancreas and increases during inflammatory episodes. Lipase levels remain elevated longer than amylase, exceeding the normal reference range of 0 to 160 U/L as pancreatic acinar cells undergo damage.
Choice D rationale
Chronic pancreatitis often leads to the destruction of insulin-producing beta cells in the islets of Langerhans. This typically results in secondary diabetes mellitus and hyperglycemia, rather than decreased serum glucose levels below the normal 70 to 99 mg/dL.
Choice E rationale
Hypocalcemia is the expected finding due to calcium binding in necrotic fat. Elevated serum calcium is not consistent with pancreatitis; in fact, hypercalcemia is sometimes a causative factor for pancreatitis rather than a clinical manifestation of the disease.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E","F","H"]
Explanation
Following major orthopedic surgery, a client presenting with sudden shortness of breath and tachycardia is highly suspicious for a pulmonary embolism. Knowledge of venous thromboembolism complications, diagnostic imaging protocols, and immediate stabilization techniques is necessary to prevent cardiovascular collapse and ensure respiratory support.
Choice A rationale: Computed tomography pulmonary angiography is the gold standard for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism. It allows for direct visualization of the pulmonary vasculature to identify arterial obstructions, which is essential for confirming the suspected condition in a post-operative patient.
Choice B rationale: A flat supine position can worsen respiratory distress by increasing the work of breathing and reducing lung expansion. Clients experiencing shortness of breath should be placed in a high-Fowler position to optimize ventilation and improve oxygenation.
Choice C rationale: Laboratory testing, including a complete blood count and coagulation studies, provides a baseline for the client's hematological status. These values are critical for planning the safe administration of therapeutic anticoagulation and monitoring for potential bleeding risks.
Choice D rationale: Obtaining venous access is a priority intervention to allow for the rapid administration of emergency medications or intravenous fluids. In the event of hemodynamic instability or the need for IV anticoagulants, established access is life-saving.
Choice E rationale: Continuous cardiac monitoring is necessary to track the client's heart rate and rhythm. Pulmonary embolism can cause right heart strain and dysrhythmias; monitoring allows the nurse to detect early signs of cardiac decompensation or worsening tachycardia.
Choice F rationale: Continuous oxygen saturation monitoring provides real-time data on the client’s respiratory status. Since pulmonary embolism impairs gas exchange, tracking saturation levels is vital to ensure that oxygen therapy is maintaining adequate systemic tissue perfusion.
Choice G rationale: Nurses cannot independently increase medication dosages, as this constitutes prescribing. Any changes to anticoagulant therapy, such as apixaban, must be ordered by a provider based on weight-based protocols and the severity of the thrombotic event.
Choice H rationale: Supplemental oxygen should be applied immediately to address the client's shortness of breath and potential hypoxemia. Increasing the concentration of inspired oxygen helps compensate for the ventilation-perfusion mismatch caused by the obstruction in the pulmonary arteries.
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