A client presents with a respiratory rate of 7/min.
The ABG results are: pH 7.22, PaCO2 68 mm Hg, HCO3 26 mEq/L, PaO2 78 mm Hg, and Oxygen saturation 80 Which interpretation is most accurate?
Metabolic acidosis with partial compensation.
Respiratory alkalosis with hypoxia.
Metabolic alkalosis without compensation.
Respiratory acidosis with hypoventilation.
The Correct Answer is D
Analyzing arterial blood gas results requires understanding the relationship between hydrogen ion concentration, carbon dioxide levels, and bicarbonate. Knowledge of respiratory physiology is essential to determine if the primary imbalance stems from gas exchange failure or metabolic dysfunction in the body.
Choice A rationale
Metabolic acidosis is defined by a low pH and a low bicarbonate level below 22 mEq/L. In this case, the bicarbonate is 26 mEq/L, which is within the normal range of 22 to 28 mEq/L, ruling it out.
Choice B rationale
Respiratory alkalosis occurs when the pH is above 7.45 and the PaCO2 is below 35 mm Hg. This client has a low pH of 7.22 and a high PaCO2 of 68 mm Hg, which indicates an acidotic state.
Choice C rationale
Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a high pH above 7.45 and an elevated bicarbonate level. This client presents with a low pH and a normal bicarbonate level, which does not fit the criteria for a metabolic alkalotic imbalance.
Choice D rationale
The pH of 7.22 is below 7.35, indicating acidosis. The PaCO2 of 68 mm Hg is above the normal 35 to 45 mm Hg range, confirming a respiratory cause. A respiratory rate of 7/min causes CO2 retention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Educating a patient with atrial fibrillation requires applying knowledge of cardiac hemodynamics and the coagulation cascade. The nurse must focus on how ineffective atrial contractions lead to blood stasis, increasing the probability of clot formation and subsequent systemic embolization.
Choice A rationale
Atrial fibrillation does not directly cause hyperglycemia. While the stress of an acute arrhythmia might slightly elevate blood glucose due to cortisol release, it is not a primary complication or a major risk specifically linked to this rhythm.
Choice B rationale
Diabetic retinopathy is a microvascular complication resulting from chronic poor glucose control over many years. It is not exacerbated or caused by the onset of atrial fibrillation, which is a macrovascular and electrical conduction issue of the heart.
Choice C rationale
In atrial fibrillation, the atria quiver instead of contracting effectively, allowing blood to pool in the left atrial appendage. This stasis leads to thrombus formation; if a clot dislodges, it can travel to the brain.
Choice D rationale
Diabetic ketoacidosis is typically triggered by infection, insulin omission, or extreme physiological stress in Type 1 diabetics. While an arrhythmia is a stressor, the most specific and dangerous direct risk of atrial fibrillation remains systemic thromboembolism
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Identifying life-threatening complications in immunocompromised oncology patients requires synthesizing laboratory data with clinical symptoms. Knowledge of systemic inflammatory response syndrome, cellular metabolism under stress, and neutropenia thresholds is essential to differentiate between expected chemotherapy side effects and the onset of acute septic shock.
Choice A rationale: An ANC of 400/mm³ signifies severe neutropenia (normal ≥ 1500/mm³), increasing vulnerability to infection. Combined with chills and a lactate of 5.6 mmol/L (normal ≤ 2.0 mmol/L), which indicates tissue hypoperfusion and anaerobic metabolism, the client meets criteria for septic shock.
Choice B rationale: Tumor lysis syndrome involves metabolic disturbances including hyperkalemia, hyperuricemia, and hyperphosphatemia resulting from rapid cancer cell death. While common in leukemia treatment, it does not typically present with severe lactic acidosis and sepsis symptoms like chills and extreme neutrophil depletion.
Choice C rationale: While chemotherapy-related fatigue is a standard expectation, it is a diagnosis of exclusion. Attributing a high lactate level and clinical instability to mere fatigue is a dangerous misinterpretation that ignores the objective evidence of physiological distress and cellular hypoxia.
Choice D rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome is an obstructive emergency characterized by facial edema, distended neck veins, and upper body redness due to blood flow blockage. It does not correlate with the metabolic lactic acidosis or the hematologic findings of neutropenia seen here.
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