The nurse suspects that a client has decorticate posturing.
Which findings support the nurse's suspicion?
Internal rotation and adduction of arms with flexion of elbows, wrists, and fingers.
Back hunched over and rigid flexion of all four extremities with supination of arms and plantar flexion of feet.
Supination of arms and dorsiflexion of the feet.
Arms are pronated, extended, and close to body with wrists rotated.
The Correct Answer is A
Neurological posturing indicates severe brain injury and helps localize the level of damage. Applying knowledge of motor pathway dysfunction, specifically the corticospinal tract, is necessary to distinguish between flexion and extension patterns seen in comatose patients.
Choice A rationale
Decorticate posturing results from damage to the corticospinal tract above the red nucleus. It is characterized by adduction of the arms, internal rotation, and flexion at the elbows, wrists, and fingers, while legs are extended and internally rotated.
Choice B rationale
This description does not match a standard neurological posturing pattern. Rigidity and flexion are seen in decorticate posturing, but "back hunched over" and "supination" of arms are not typical descriptors for these specific upper motor neuron indicators.
Choice C rationale
Supination of the arms is not a component of pathological posturing. Both decorticate and decerebrate posturing typically involve some form of pronation or flexion. Dorsiflexion is also not standard, as plantar flexion is commonly seen in both.
Choice D rationale
This describes decerebrate posturing, which indicates more severe damage to the brainstem or midbrain. It is characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, pronation of the arms, and plantar flexion of the feet with outward rotation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Identifying life-threatening complications in immunocompromised oncology patients requires synthesizing laboratory data with clinical symptoms. Knowledge of systemic inflammatory response syndrome, cellular metabolism under stress, and neutropenia thresholds is essential to differentiate between expected chemotherapy side effects and the onset of acute septic shock.
Choice A rationale: An ANC of 400/mm³ signifies severe neutropenia (normal ≥ 1500/mm³), increasing vulnerability to infection. Combined with chills and a lactate of 5.6 mmol/L (normal ≤ 2.0 mmol/L), which indicates tissue hypoperfusion and anaerobic metabolism, the client meets criteria for septic shock.
Choice B rationale: Tumor lysis syndrome involves metabolic disturbances including hyperkalemia, hyperuricemia, and hyperphosphatemia resulting from rapid cancer cell death. While common in leukemia treatment, it does not typically present with severe lactic acidosis and sepsis symptoms like chills and extreme neutrophil depletion.
Choice C rationale: While chemotherapy-related fatigue is a standard expectation, it is a diagnosis of exclusion. Attributing a high lactate level and clinical instability to mere fatigue is a dangerous misinterpretation that ignores the objective evidence of physiological distress and cellular hypoxia.
Choice D rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome is an obstructive emergency characterized by facial edema, distended neck veins, and upper body redness due to blood flow blockage. It does not correlate with the metabolic lactic acidosis or the hematologic findings of neutropenia seen here.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Assessment of respiratory patterns in terminal patients involves identifying neurological and metabolic shifts. This scenario requires knowledge of breathing cycles, specifically the crescendo-decrescendo pattern and apnea associated with brainstem dysfunction or advanced heart failure during end-of-life care.
Choice A rationale
Kussmaul respirations involve deep, rapid breathing typically seen in metabolic acidosis. This pattern is a compensatory mechanism to expel excess carbon dioxide, lowering arterial acidity, and is distinct from the cyclic apnea seen in terminal brain injury.
Choice B rationale
Cheyne-Stokes is characterized by rhythmic waxing and waning of breathing depth followed by apnea. It occurs due to delayed feedback in the respiratory center, often seen in stroke, traumatic brain injury, or profound heart failure.
Choice C rationale
Biot respirations involve clusters of shallow breaths followed by irregular periods of apnea. This occurs with damage to the medulla oblongata and lacks the rhythmic, gradual increase and decrease in depth seen in the Cheyne-Stokes pattern.
Choice D rationale
Orthopnea is the physical inability to breathe comfortably while lying flat. It is common in congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema, requiring the patient to sit upright to decrease venous return and improve diaphragmatic excursion.
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