The assessment findings of a patient with myocardial infarction (MI) include jugular venous distention, weight gain, peripheral edema, and a heart rate of 108/minute. The nurse suspects what complication?
Left-sided HF
Right-sided HF
Chronic heart failure (HF)
Acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF)
The Correct Answer is B
The assessment findings of jugular venous distention, weight gain, peripheral edema, and a heart rate of 108/minute are consistent with right-sided heart failure (HF). Right-sided HF occurs when the right ventricle of the heart is unable to pump effectively, leading to congestion in the venous circulation. This can result in jugular venous distention (JVD) due to increased pressure in the jugular veins, peripheral edema due to fluid retention, and weight gain due to fluid accumulation.
Option A (Left-sided HF) may also present with similar symptoms like jugular venous distention, weight gain, and peripheral edema. However, in left-sided HF, there would typically be signs of pulmonary congestion, such as crackles in the lungs and shortness of breath.
Option C (Chronic heart failure) is a general term used for heart failure that has been present for an extended period, and it does not specify whether it is left-sided or right-sided heart failure.
Option D (Acute decompensated heart failure - ADHF) is a form of heart failure that presents with severe symptoms and requires urgent treatment. It is more of a clinical classification rather than a specific complication related to the symptoms mentioned in the scenario.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like membrane surrounding the heart. It can cause chest pain, which is often worsened by deep breathing or coughing. The goal of treatment for pericarditis is to reduce inflammation and relieve pain.
In this case, the client's pain level is reported as 6 out of 10. As per the PRN (as-needed) medication options given:
C) Oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and can help reduce inflammation and relieve pain in cases of pericarditis. It is an appropriate choice for this client's pain level of 6 out of 10.
A) IV morphine sulfate 4 mg: IV morphine is a potent opioid analgesic and may be appropriate for severe pain. However, in this case, the client's pain level is moderate (6 out of 10), and it is not the first-line medication for pericarditis pain.
B) Oral acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg: Acetaminophen is a mild analgesic and antipyretic that can be effective for mild to moderate pain. However, in this situation, the client's pain is moderate (6 out of 10), and acetaminophen alone may not provide adequate relief for pericarditis pain.
D) Fentanyl 1 mg IV: Fentanyl is another potent opioid analgesic. However, similar to morphine, it may be more appropriate for severe pain, not moderate pain like in this scenario.
Based on the client's pain level and the goal of reducing inflammation, the most appropriate PRN medication for the nurse to give is oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client taking isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine (BiDil) and experiencing a headache should be assessed first. Isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine is a medication combination used to treat heart failure, particularly in African American patients. However, one of the side effects of hydralazine is headaches.
Headache in a client taking this medication may indicate increased blood pressure as a compensatory response to vasodilation. If not addressed promptly, it may lead to worsening heart failure or other complications. Therefore, it is essential to assess the client's blood pressure, signs of worsening heart failure, and evaluate the severity and duration of the headache.
The other options may also require attention:
A) A client taking digoxin with a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L needs assessment, as hypokalemia can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. However, the headache in the BiDil client takes priority due to the potential complications related to increased blood pressure.
B) A client taking captopril and experiencing a frequent nonproductive cough may indicate a side effect of the medication. While it should be assessed, it is not as immediately concerning as the headache in the BiDil client.
C) A client taking carvedilol (Coreg) with a heart rate of 58 is within an acceptable range, especially if the client is tolerating it well without symptoms. It may not require immediate assessment unless there are other concerning symptoms.
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