A client with a history of hypertension treated with a diuretic and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor arrives in the emergency department. The client reports a severe headache and nausea and has a blood pressure (BP) of 238/118 mm Hg. Which question should the nurse ask to follow up on these findings?
"Have you recently taken any antihistamines?"
"Have there been recent stressful events in your life?"
"Have you consistently taken your medications?"
"Did you take any acetaminophen/Tylenol) today?"
The Correct Answer is B
The client presenting to the emergency department with a severe headache, nausea, and significantly elevated blood pressure (BP) of 238/118 mm Hg indicates a hypertensive crisis, which is a severe and potentially life-threatening condition. In such cases, the nurse's priority is to assess for potential triggers or exacerbating factors for the hypertensive crisis.
Option B, "Have there been recent stressful events in your life?" is the most relevant question to follow up on the findings. Stress is a known trigger for acute elevations in blood pressure, and severe stress can lead to a hypertensive crisis in individuals with a history of hypertension. Identifying recent stressful events may help the nurse understand potential contributing factors to the client's current condition and guide the management plan.
Option A, "Have you recently taken any antihistamines?" is not the most relevant question in this situation. Antihistamines are not typically associated with causing a hypertensive crisis. While certain medications and substances can interact with antihypertensive medications, causing an increase in BP, the severity of the client's symptoms and the extremely high BP reading suggest that a more immediate concern needs to be addressed.
Option C, "Have you consistently taken your medications?" is important for assessing medication adherence, but it may not directly explain the acute hypertensive crisis. The client's current symptoms and BP reading require more immediate investigation into potential triggers.
Option D, "Did you take any aspirin (or Tylenol) today?" is relevant to assess whether the client has recently taken any over-the-counter medications that could potentially interact with their prescribed antihypertensive drugs. However, it is not the most critical question to address the hypertensive crisis and the severity of the client's symptoms.
Given the severity of the client's presentation, the nurse should also promptly initiate appropriate interventions to address the hypertensive crisis, such as administering antihypertensive medications as prescribed, monitoring vital signs frequently, and notifying the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The client's presentation of chest pain radiating to the left arm, sweating, shortness of breath, epigastric discomfort, cool and diaphoretic skin, tachycardia, and ST elevation on the electrocardiogram (ECG) are indicative of myocardial infarction (heart attack). These symptoms and findings are typical of acute coronary syndrome, specifically an ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).
Option A (Ischemic Stroke) is not the correct answer because the symptoms described in the client's presentation are primarily related to the cardiovascular system and not indicative of an ischemic stroke.
Option B (Chronic Stable Angina) is not the correct answer because chronic stable angina typically presents with chest pain on exertion or stress, and it usually subsides with rest or nitroglycerin. The client's symptoms of chest pain at rest, along with other findings, are more concerning for an acute cardiac event like a myocardial infarction.
Option D (Cardiogenic Shock) is a severe complication that can occur following a myocardial infarction, but the information provided in the scenario does not suggest that the client is in cardiogenic shock at this time. The client's blood pressure is not mentioned in the scenario, which is a crucial parameter to assess for cardiogenic shock.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that acts by blocking the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system on the heart, leading to an increase in heart rate (positive chronotropic effect) and conduction velocity (positive dromotropic effect). In patients with symptomatic type 1 second degree atrioventricular (AV) block (also known as Mobitz type 1 or Wenckebach), the electrical impulses between the atria and ventricles are delayed or blocked intermittently, resulting in a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a ventricular beat is dropped.
When atropine is administered to a patient with symptomatic type 1 AV block, it can counteract the increased vagal tone that contributes to the block and help improve the conduction through the AV node. As a result, the heart rate is expected to increase, which is a positive response to the medication.
The other options listed (B) Decrease in premature ventricular contractions, (C) Increase in strength of peripheral pulses, and (D) Decrease in premature atrial contractions, are not directly related to the effect of atropine on type 1 AV block and are not typical findings associated with atropine administration in this context. The main goal of administering atropine in this situation is to increase the heart rate and improve the AV conduction to alleviate symptoms associated with the AV block.
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