A client recovering from heart surgery develops pericarditis and reports level 6 (0 to 10 scale) chest pain with deep breathing. Which prescribed PRN medication will be the most appropriate for the nurse to give?

IV morphine sulfate 4 mg

Oral acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg

Oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg

Fentanyl 1 mg IV

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like membrane surrounding the heart. It can cause chest pain, which is often worsened by deep breathing or coughing. The goal of treatment for pericarditis is to reduce inflammation and relieve pain.

In this case, the client's pain level is reported as 6 out of 10. As per the PRN (as-needed) medication options given:

C) Oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and can help reduce inflammation and relieve pain in cases of pericarditis. It is an appropriate choice for this client's pain level of 6 out of 10.

A) IV morphine sulfate 4 mg: IV morphine is a potent opioid analgesic and may be appropriate for severe pain. However, in this case, the client's pain level is moderate (6 out of 10), and it is not the first-line medication for pericarditis pain.

B) Oral acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg: Acetaminophen is a mild analgesic and antipyretic that can be effective for mild to moderate pain. However, in this situation, the client's pain is moderate (6 out of 10), and acetaminophen alone may not provide adequate relief for pericarditis pain.

D) Fentanyl 1 mg IV: Fentanyl is another potent opioid analgesic. However, similar to morphine, it may be more appropriate for severe pain, not moderate pain like in this scenario.

Based on the client's pain level and the goal of reducing inflammation, the most appropriate PRN medication for the nurse to give is oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

When a patient with dilated cardiomyopathy develops new onset atrial fibrillation (AF) that has been unresponsive to drug therapy, the nurse should prioritize patient education about anticoagulant therapy. Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of blood clots forming in the heart's atria due to the irregular and ineffective pumping of blood. These blood clots can potentially travel to other parts of the body, leading to serious complications such as stroke.

Anticoagulant therapy, also known as blood-thinning medication, is commonly prescribed for patients with atrial fibrillation to prevent the formation of blood clots. The most common anticoagulant prescribed for AF is warfarin or direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) such as apixaban, rivaroxaban, dabigatran, or edoxaban. The nurse should educate the patient about the importance of taking the anticoagulant as prescribed and the need for regular monitoring of clotting times (INR for warfarin) to ensure the medication is effective and the dose is appropriate.

While other options listed in the choices may be relevant in specific situations, the priority in this case is to address the potential risk of stroke associated with atrial fibrillation and the importance of anticoagulant therapy to manage that risk effectively.

A. Left-sided HF B. Right-sided HF C. Chronic heart failure (HF) D. Acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF)

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The assessment findings of jugular venous distention, weight gain, peripheral edema, and a heart rate of 108/minute are consistent with right-sided heart failure (HF). Right-sided HF occurs when the right ventricle of the heart is unable to pump effectively, leading to congestion in the venous circulation. This can result in jugular venous distention (JVD) due to increased pressure in the jugular veins, peripheral edema due to fluid retention, and weight gain due to fluid accumulation.

Option A (Left-sided HF) may also present with similar symptoms like jugular venous distention, weight gain, and peripheral edema. However, in left-sided HF, there would typically be signs of pulmonary congestion, such as crackles in the lungs and shortness of breath.

Option C (Chronic heart failure) is a general term used for heart failure that has been present for an extended period, and it does not specify whether it is left-sided or right-sided heart failure.

Option D (Acute decompensated heart failure - ADHF) is a form of heart failure that presents with severe symptoms and requires urgent treatment. It is more of a clinical classification rather than a specific complication related to the symptoms mentioned in the scenario.

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A client recovering from heart surgery develops pericarditis and reports level 6 (0 to 10 scale) chest pain with deep breathing. Which prescribed PRN medication will be the most appropriate for the nurse to give?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient with dilated cardiomyopathy has new onset atrial fibrillation that has been unresponsive to drug therapy for several days. What topic should the nurse plan to include in patient teaching?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The assessment findings of a patient with myocardial infarction (MI) include jugular venous distention, weight gain, peripheral edema, and a heart rate of 108/minute. The nurse suspects what complication?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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