A client recovering from heart surgery develops pericarditis and reports level 6 (0 to 10 scale) chest pain with deep breathing. Which prescribed PRN medication will be the most appropriate for the nurse to give?

IV morphine sulfate 4 mg

Oral acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg

Oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg

Fentanyl 1 mg IV

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like membrane surrounding the heart. It can cause chest pain, which is often worsened by deep breathing or coughing. The goal of treatment for pericarditis is to reduce inflammation and relieve pain.

In this case, the client's pain level is reported as 6 out of 10. As per the PRN (as-needed) medication options given:

C) Oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and can help reduce inflammation and relieve pain in cases of pericarditis. It is an appropriate choice for this client's pain level of 6 out of 10.

A) IV morphine sulfate 4 mg: IV morphine is a potent opioid analgesic and may be appropriate for severe pain. However, in this case, the client's pain level is moderate (6 out of 10), and it is not the first-line medication for pericarditis pain.

B) Oral acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg: Acetaminophen is a mild analgesic and antipyretic that can be effective for mild to moderate pain. However, in this situation, the client's pain is moderate (6 out of 10), and acetaminophen alone may not provide adequate relief for pericarditis pain.

D) Fentanyl 1 mg IV: Fentanyl is another potent opioid analgesic. However, similar to morphine, it may be more appropriate for severe pain, not moderate pain like in this scenario.

Based on the client's pain level and the goal of reducing inflammation, the most appropriate PRN medication for the nurse to give is oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that acts by blocking the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system on the heart, leading to an increase in heart rate (positive chronotropic effect) and conduction velocity (positive dromotropic effect). In patients with symptomatic type 1 second degree atrioventricular (AV) block (also known as Mobitz type 1 or Wenckebach), the electrical impulses between the atria and ventricles are delayed or blocked intermittently, resulting in a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a ventricular beat is dropped.

When atropine is administered to a patient with symptomatic type 1 AV block, it can counteract the increased vagal tone that contributes to the block and help improve the conduction through the AV node. As a result, the heart rate is expected to increase, which is a positive response to the medication.

The other options listed (B) Decrease in premature ventricular contractions, (C) Increase in strength of peripheral pulses, and (D) Decrease in premature atrial contractions, are not directly related to the effect of atropine on type 1 AV block and are not typical findings associated with atropine administration in this context. The main goal of administering atropine in this situation is to increase the heart rate and improve the AV conduction to alleviate symptoms associated with the AV block.

A. Left-sided HF B. Right-sided HF C. Chronic heart failure (HF) D. Acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF)

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The assessment findings of jugular venous distention, weight gain, peripheral edema, and a heart rate of 108/minute are consistent with right-sided heart failure (HF). Right-sided HF occurs when the right ventricle of the heart is unable to pump effectively, leading to congestion in the venous circulation. This can result in jugular venous distention (JVD) due to increased pressure in the jugular veins, peripheral edema due to fluid retention, and weight gain due to fluid accumulation.

Option A (Left-sided HF) may also present with similar symptoms like jugular venous distention, weight gain, and peripheral edema. However, in left-sided HF, there would typically be signs of pulmonary congestion, such as crackles in the lungs and shortness of breath.

Option C (Chronic heart failure) is a general term used for heart failure that has been present for an extended period, and it does not specify whether it is left-sided or right-sided heart failure.

Option D (Acute decompensated heart failure - ADHF) is a form of heart failure that presents with severe symptoms and requires urgent treatment. It is more of a clinical classification rather than a specific complication related to the symptoms mentioned in the scenario.

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A client recovering from heart surgery develops pericarditis and reports level 6 (0 to 10 scale) chest pain with deep breathing. Which prescribed PRN medication will be the most appropriate for the nurse to give?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

After the nurse gives IV atropine to a patient with symptomatic type 1. second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, which finding indicates that the drug has been effective?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The assessment findings of a patient with myocardial infarction (MI) include jugular venous distention, weight gain, peripheral edema, and a heart rate of 108/minute. The nurse suspects what complication?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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