A nurse is assessing a client who has end-stage kidney disease and is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication the client is experiencing fluid overload?

The client has had a 3 lb weight gain since yesterday.

Flattened neck veins

Oxygen saturation 93%

Return of skin to previous position when the client's shin is palpated

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A 3 lb weight gain in a short period, especially overnight, is indicative of fluid overload in a client with end-stage kidney disease receiving hemodialysis. Hemodialysis is performed to remove excess fluid and waste products from the body. If the client is experiencing fluid overload, it means that their body is retaining more fluid than it should, and this can lead to complications such as pulmonary edema, heart failure, and other cardiovascular problems. The nurse should identify this finding as an indication of potential fluid overload and report it to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The client taking isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine (BiDil) and experiencing a headache should be assessed first. Isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine is a medication combination used to treat heart failure, particularly in African American patients. However, one of the side effects of hydralazine is headaches.

Headache in a client taking this medication may indicate increased blood pressure as a compensatory response to vasodilation. If not addressed promptly, it may lead to worsening heart failure or other complications. Therefore, it is essential to assess the client's blood pressure, signs of worsening heart failure, and evaluate the severity and duration of the headache.

The other options may also require attention:

A) A client taking digoxin with a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L needs assessment, as hypokalemia can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. However, the headache in the BiDil client takes priority due to the potential complications related to increased blood pressure.

B) A client taking captopril and experiencing a frequent nonproductive cough may indicate a side effect of the medication. While it should be assessed, it is not as immediately concerning as the headache in the BiDil client.

C) A client taking carvedilol (Coreg) with a heart rate of 58 is within an acceptable range, especially if the client is tolerating it well without symptoms. It may not require immediate assessment unless there are other concerning symptoms.

A. IV morphine sulfate 4 mg B. Oral acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg C. Oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg D. Fentanyl 1 mg IV

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like membrane surrounding the heart. It can cause chest pain, which is often worsened by deep breathing or coughing. The goal of treatment for pericarditis is to reduce inflammation and relieve pain.

In this case, the client's pain level is reported as 6 out of 10. As per the PRN (as-needed) medication options given:

C) Oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and can help reduce inflammation and relieve pain in cases of pericarditis. It is an appropriate choice for this client's pain level of 6 out of 10.

A) IV morphine sulfate 4 mg: IV morphine is a potent opioid analgesic and may be appropriate for severe pain. However, in this case, the client's pain level is moderate (6 out of 10), and it is not the first-line medication for pericarditis pain.

B) Oral acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg: Acetaminophen is a mild analgesic and antipyretic that can be effective for mild to moderate pain. However, in this situation, the client's pain is moderate (6 out of 10), and acetaminophen alone may not provide adequate relief for pericarditis pain.

D) Fentanyl 1 mg IV: Fentanyl is another potent opioid analgesic. However, similar to morphine, it may be more appropriate for severe pain, not moderate pain like in this scenario.

Based on the client's pain level and the goal of reducing inflammation, the most appropriate PRN medication for the nurse to give is oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg.

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A nurse is assessing a client who has end-stage kidney disease and is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication the client is experiencing fluid overload?

Nursing Test Bank

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Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

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