While assessing an older adult client, the nurse notes jugular venous distention (JVD) with the head of the client's bed elevated 45 degrees. What does this finding indicate?

Jugular vein atherosclerosis

Increased fluid volume

Decreased fluid volume

Incompetent jugular vein valves

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Jugular venous distention (JVD) is a clinical sign that indicates increased fluid volume or fluid overload in the cardiovascular system. When the head of the client's bed is elevated at 45 degrees, the jugular veins should normally be flat or slightly distended. However, if the jugular veins appear engorged and bulging, it suggests that there is an increased amount of blood returning to the right side of the heart and is unable to be efficiently pumped forward, leading to jugular venous distention.

JVD is commonly seen in conditions such as heart failure, where the heart's ability to pump blood efficiently is compromised, leading to fluid accumulation in the veins and eventually causing jugular venous distention.

Option A, jugular vein atherosclerosis, is not a common cause of JVD. Atherosclerosis refers to the build-up of plaque within arteries, not veins.

Option C, decreased fluid volume, would lead to dehydration and decreased venous filling, which would not cause jugular venous distention. It would lead to flat or sunken jugular veins.

Option D, incompetent jugular vein valves, would not cause jugular venous distention with the head of the bed elevated. Incompetent valves may lead to venous reflux or backward flow of blood, but it would not lead to the distention of the jugular veins in this position.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that acts by blocking the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system on the heart, leading to an increase in heart rate (positive chronotropic effect) and conduction velocity (positive dromotropic effect). In patients with symptomatic type 1 second degree atrioventricular (AV) block (also known as Mobitz type 1 or Wenckebach), the electrical impulses between the atria and ventricles are delayed or blocked intermittently, resulting in a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a ventricular beat is dropped.

When atropine is administered to a patient with symptomatic type 1 AV block, it can counteract the increased vagal tone that contributes to the block and help improve the conduction through the AV node. As a result, the heart rate is expected to increase, which is a positive response to the medication.

The other options listed (B) Decrease in premature ventricular contractions, (C) Increase in strength of peripheral pulses, and (D) Decrease in premature atrial contractions, are not directly related to the effect of atropine on type 1 AV block and are not typical findings associated with atropine administration in this context. The main goal of administering atropine in this situation is to increase the heart rate and improve the AV conduction to alleviate symptoms associated with the AV block.

A. Client who is taking digoxin and has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L B. Client who is taking captopril and has a frequent nonproductive cough C. Client who is taking carvedilol (Coreg) and has a heart rate of 58 D. Client who is taking isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine (BiDil) and has a headache

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The client taking isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine (BiDil) and experiencing a headache should be assessed first. Isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine is a medication combination used to treat heart failure, particularly in African American patients. However, one of the side effects of hydralazine is headaches.

Headache in a client taking this medication may indicate increased blood pressure as a compensatory response to vasodilation. If not addressed promptly, it may lead to worsening heart failure or other complications. Therefore, it is essential to assess the client's blood pressure, signs of worsening heart failure, and evaluate the severity and duration of the headache.

The other options may also require attention:

A) A client taking digoxin with a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L needs assessment, as hypokalemia can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. However, the headache in the BiDil client takes priority due to the potential complications related to increased blood pressure.

B) A client taking captopril and experiencing a frequent nonproductive cough may indicate a side effect of the medication. While it should be assessed, it is not as immediately concerning as the headache in the BiDil client.

C) A client taking carvedilol (Coreg) with a heart rate of 58 is within an acceptable range, especially if the client is tolerating it well without symptoms. It may not require immediate assessment unless there are other concerning symptoms.

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While assessing an older adult client, the nurse notes jugular venous distention (JVD) with the head of the client's bed elevated 45 degrees. What does this finding indicate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

After the nurse gives IV atropine to a patient with symptomatic type 1. second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, which finding indicates that the drug has been effective?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

After receiving change-of-shift report on a heart failure unit, which client should the nurse assess first?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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