A patient is apneic and has no palpable pulses. The heart monitor shows sinus tachycardia, rate 132. What action should the nurse take next?
Perform synchronized cardioversion.
Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
Apply supplemental O₂ via non-rebreather mask.
Give atropine per agency dysrhythmia protocol.
The Correct Answer is B
The patient is apneic (not breathing) and has no palpable pulses, indicating a cardiac arrest or severe cardiovascular compromise. In this situation, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take next is to start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) immediately.
CPR is a life-saving procedure that combines chest compressions and rescue breaths to circulate oxygenated blood to vital organs when the heart is not effectively pumping. In the case of cardiac arrest, early initiation of CPR is critical to improve the chances of survival and minimize potential brain damage.
The heart monitor shows sinus tachycardia, rate 132, which suggests that the electrical impulses are reaching the heart, but the heart is not effectively pumping blood due to the lack of a palpable pulse. This condition requires immediate intervention with CPR rather than other treatments such as synchronized cardioversion (option A) or administering atropine (option D).
While applying supplemental oxygen via a non-rebreather mask (option C) is generally important in many emergency situations, it is not the immediate priority when a patient is apneic and has no palpable pulses. In such cases, CPR takes precedence to restore circulation and maintain oxygen delivery to the body's vital organs.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that acts by blocking the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system on the heart, leading to an increase in heart rate (positive chronotropic effect) and conduction velocity (positive dromotropic effect). In patients with symptomatic type 1 second degree atrioventricular (AV) block (also known as Mobitz type 1 or Wenckebach), the electrical impulses between the atria and ventricles are delayed or blocked intermittently, resulting in a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a ventricular beat is dropped.
When atropine is administered to a patient with symptomatic type 1 AV block, it can counteract the increased vagal tone that contributes to the block and help improve the conduction through the AV node. As a result, the heart rate is expected to increase, which is a positive response to the medication.
The other options listed (B) Decrease in premature ventricular contractions, (C) Increase in strength of peripheral pulses, and (D) Decrease in premature atrial contractions, are not directly related to the effect of atropine on type 1 AV block and are not typical findings associated with atropine administration in this context. The main goal of administering atropine in this situation is to increase the heart rate and improve the AV conduction to alleviate symptoms associated with the AV block.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client taking isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine (BiDil) and experiencing a headache should be assessed first. Isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine is a medication combination used to treat heart failure, particularly in African American patients. However, one of the side effects of hydralazine is headaches.
Headache in a client taking this medication may indicate increased blood pressure as a compensatory response to vasodilation. If not addressed promptly, it may lead to worsening heart failure or other complications. Therefore, it is essential to assess the client's blood pressure, signs of worsening heart failure, and evaluate the severity and duration of the headache.
The other options may also require attention:
A) A client taking digoxin with a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L needs assessment, as hypokalemia can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. However, the headache in the BiDil client takes priority due to the potential complications related to increased blood pressure.
B) A client taking captopril and experiencing a frequent nonproductive cough may indicate a side effect of the medication. While it should be assessed, it is not as immediately concerning as the headache in the BiDil client.
C) A client taking carvedilol (Coreg) with a heart rate of 58 is within an acceptable range, especially if the client is tolerating it well without symptoms. It may not require immediate assessment unless there are other concerning symptoms.
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