A patient is apneic and has no palpable pulses. The heart monitor shows sinus tachycardia, rate 132. What action should the nurse take next?
Perform synchronized cardioversion.
Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
Apply supplemental O₂ via non-rebreather mask.
Give atropine per agency dysrhythmia protocol.
The Correct Answer is B
The patient is apneic (not breathing) and has no palpable pulses, indicating a cardiac arrest or severe cardiovascular compromise. In this situation, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take next is to start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) immediately.
CPR is a life-saving procedure that combines chest compressions and rescue breaths to circulate oxygenated blood to vital organs when the heart is not effectively pumping. In the case of cardiac arrest, early initiation of CPR is critical to improve the chances of survival and minimize potential brain damage.
The heart monitor shows sinus tachycardia, rate 132, which suggests that the electrical impulses are reaching the heart, but the heart is not effectively pumping blood due to the lack of a palpable pulse. This condition requires immediate intervention with CPR rather than other treatments such as synchronized cardioversion (option A) or administering atropine (option D).
While applying supplemental oxygen via a non-rebreather mask (option C) is generally important in many emergency situations, it is not the immediate priority when a patient is apneic and has no palpable pulses. In such cases, CPR takes precedence to restore circulation and maintain oxygen delivery to the body's vital organs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This statement indicates effective learning because serum cardiac markers are indeed proteins that are released from necrotic (damaged) heart muscle cells when there is myocardial injury, such as in acute coronary syndrome (ACS). These markers are measured in blood tests and help in the diagnosis and assessment of ACS, particularly myocardial infarction (heart attack).
Option A is incorrect because a nitroprusside stress echocardiogram is not used for acute pericarditis. It is a diagnostic test used for evaluating coronary artery disease and ischemia.
Option B is incorrect because a pathologic Q wave is not always present in the electrocardiogram (ECG) of patients with unstable angina. It is a characteristic finding in the ECG of patients with a previous myocardial infarction (heart attack) but may not be present in unstable angina.
Option D is incorrect because coronary angiography is not the only way to confirm the diagnosis of unstable angina. Unstable angina is primarily diagnosed based on the clinical presentation, symptoms, and changes in the ECG. Coronary angiography is an invasive procedure used to visualize the coronary arteries directly and is typically reserved for cases where further assessment and intervention are needed, such as in cases of suspected coronary artery disease.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like membrane surrounding the heart. It can cause chest pain, which is often worsened by deep breathing or coughing. The goal of treatment for pericarditis is to reduce inflammation and relieve pain.
In this case, the client's pain level is reported as 6 out of 10. As per the PRN (as-needed) medication options given:
C) Oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and can help reduce inflammation and relieve pain in cases of pericarditis. It is an appropriate choice for this client's pain level of 6 out of 10.
A) IV morphine sulfate 4 mg: IV morphine is a potent opioid analgesic and may be appropriate for severe pain. However, in this case, the client's pain level is moderate (6 out of 10), and it is not the first-line medication for pericarditis pain.
B) Oral acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg: Acetaminophen is a mild analgesic and antipyretic that can be effective for mild to moderate pain. However, in this situation, the client's pain is moderate (6 out of 10), and acetaminophen alone may not provide adequate relief for pericarditis pain.
D) Fentanyl 1 mg IV: Fentanyl is another potent opioid analgesic. However, similar to morphine, it may be more appropriate for severe pain, not moderate pain like in this scenario.
Based on the client's pain level and the goal of reducing inflammation, the most appropriate PRN medication for the nurse to give is oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg.
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