Which statement by a client with newly diagnosed heart failure indicates to the nurse that teaching was effective?

"I will use the nitroglycerin patch whenever I have chest pain."

"I will take furosemide (Lasix) every day just before bedtime."

"I will call the clinic if my weight goes up 3 pounds in a week."

"I will use an additional pillow if I am short of breath at night.”

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

The statement "I will call the clinic if my weight goes up 3 pounds in a week" indicates that the teaching about heart failure was effective. Monitoring weight is an essential self-care measure for patients with heart failure to manage fluid retention effectively. A sudden weight gain of 2-3 pounds in a week can indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure. It is crucial for the patient to report such weight changes promptly to the healthcare provider or clinic to adjust medication doses or treatment plans as needed.

The other statements are incorrect:

A) "I will use the nitroglycerin patch whenever I have chest pain." Nitroglycerin is not typically used to manage heart failure. It is used for angina, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle due to narrowed coronary arteries.

B) "I will take furosemide (Lasix) every day just before bedtime." While furosemide is a diuretic commonly prescribed for heart failure to reduce fluid retention, it is not usually taken just before bedtime. Taking furosemide in the evening may lead to frequent nighttime urination and disrupt sleep.

D) "I will use an additional pillow if I am short of breath at night." Using an extra pillow may provide temporary relief for positional dyspnea (shortness of breath when lying flat) but is not an appropriate long-term strategy for managing heart failure. Elevated pillows may not effectively improve breathing and can lead to neck strain. Instead, patients with heart failure should be encouraged to sleep with their head slightly elevated on a regular basis, using a wedge pillow or adjustable bed if needed. Managing fluid retention and adhering to prescribed medications are essential for improving heart failure symptoms and preventing complications.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The assessment findings of jugular venous distention, weight gain, peripheral edema, and a heart rate of 108/minute are consistent with right-sided heart failure (HF). Right-sided HF occurs when the right ventricle of the heart is unable to pump effectively, leading to congestion in the venous circulation. This can result in jugular venous distention (JVD) due to increased pressure in the jugular veins, peripheral edema due to fluid retention, and weight gain due to fluid accumulation.

Option A (Left-sided HF) may also present with similar symptoms like jugular venous distention, weight gain, and peripheral edema. However, in left-sided HF, there would typically be signs of pulmonary congestion, such as crackles in the lungs and shortness of breath.

Option C (Chronic heart failure) is a general term used for heart failure that has been present for an extended period, and it does not specify whether it is left-sided or right-sided heart failure.

Option D (Acute decompensated heart failure - ADHF) is a form of heart failure that presents with severe symptoms and requires urgent treatment. It is more of a clinical classification rather than a specific complication related to the symptoms mentioned in the scenario.

A. IV morphine sulfate 4 mg B. Oral acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg C. Oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg D. Fentanyl 1 mg IV

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like membrane surrounding the heart. It can cause chest pain, which is often worsened by deep breathing or coughing. The goal of treatment for pericarditis is to reduce inflammation and relieve pain.

In this case, the client's pain level is reported as 6 out of 10. As per the PRN (as-needed) medication options given:

C) Oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and can help reduce inflammation and relieve pain in cases of pericarditis. It is an appropriate choice for this client's pain level of 6 out of 10.

A) IV morphine sulfate 4 mg: IV morphine is a potent opioid analgesic and may be appropriate for severe pain. However, in this case, the client's pain level is moderate (6 out of 10), and it is not the first-line medication for pericarditis pain.

B) Oral acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg: Acetaminophen is a mild analgesic and antipyretic that can be effective for mild to moderate pain. However, in this situation, the client's pain is moderate (6 out of 10), and acetaminophen alone may not provide adequate relief for pericarditis pain.

D) Fentanyl 1 mg IV: Fentanyl is another potent opioid analgesic. However, similar to morphine, it may be more appropriate for severe pain, not moderate pain like in this scenario.

Based on the client's pain level and the goal of reducing inflammation, the most appropriate PRN medication for the nurse to give is oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg.

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Which statement by a client with newly diagnosed heart failure indicates to the nurse that teaching was effective?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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