A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease (CKD). The nurse should instruct the client to limit which of the following nutrients? (Select all that apply.)
Potassium
Calcium
Iron
Phosphorous
Correct Answer : A,B,D
A) Potassium: CKD can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) as the kidneys lose their ability to excrete potassium effectively. Limiting potassium intake helps prevent elevated potassium levels and reduces the risk of cardiac arrhythmias.
B) Calcium: In CKD, impaired kidney function can lead to abnormalities in calcium and phosphorus metabolism, which can result in secondary hyperparathyroidism. Limiting calcium intake can help manage the imbalances in calcium and phosphorus levels.
(D) Phosphorus: Impaired kidney function in CKD leads to decreased phosphate excretion, resulting in hyperphosphatemia (high phosphorus levels). High phosphorus levels can lead to bone disease and other complications, so limiting phosphorus intake is essential.
Iron (C) is not typically limited in the diet of a client with CKD unless they have iron overload or specific conditions that warrant iron restriction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
Based on the client's condition, the nurse should monitor the following:
C. Electrocardiogram (ECG) Rhythm: The client is experiencing chest pain with ST elevation, which indicates a possible myocardial infarction (MI). Continuous monitoring of the ECG rhythm is essential to identify any changes or dysrhythmias that may occur during the course of the client's care.
E. Vital signs: The client's tachycardia with ST elevation suggests cardiac involvement. Monitoring vital signs, including heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation, is crucial to assess the client's hemodynamic status and detect any signs of deterioration or improvement.
The other options (A. WBC Count, B. Platelet Count, and D. Serum glucose level) are not directly related to the client's acute chest pain and the possible MI. While these tests may be ordered for other reasons or as part of the overall assessment, they are not the immediate priorities in this situation. Monitoring the ECG rhythm and vital signs are more relevant to the client's acute cardiac condition.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Discharge teaching for a client with heart failure and reduced ejection fraction should prioritize education about medications that are essential in managing heart failure, such as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.
ACE inhibitors are a class of medications commonly prescribed to heart failure patients with reduced ejection fraction. They work by dilating blood vessels, reducing the workload on the heart, and improving the heart's pumping ability. They are one of the cornerstones of heart failure management and have been shown to reduce symptoms, improve quality of life, and prolong survival in heart failure patients.
Educating the client about the benefits and effects of ACE inhibitors is crucial to promote medication adherence and ensure they understand the importance of taking this medication as prescribed. Common side effects, such as dizziness or dry cough, should also be discussed so the client knows what to expect and when to notify their healthcare provider.
While the other options may also be relevant to a client with heart failure, including starting an aerobic exercise program (A), reducing salt intake (B), and scheduling regular follow-up appointments (C), the immediate priority in discharge teaching should be about the medication regimen and the specific benefits and effects of ACE inhibitors. Other aspects of heart failure management can be addressed during the overall education and follow-up sessions.
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