The 1-day postpartum patient shows a temperature elevation, cough, and slight shortness of breath on exertion. Based on these symptoms, the nurse should:

Document expected postpartum mucous membrane congestion

Notify the charge nurse of a possible upper respiratory infection

Notify the physician of a possible pulmonary embolism

Medicate with antipyretic remedy for elevated temperature

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Notify the physician of a possible pulmonary embolism. This is because the client's symptoms suggest that she has a pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage of a blood vessel in the lungs often caused by blood clots that travel from the legs. Pulmonary embolism is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. The client may also have chest pain, coughing up blood, dizziness, or fainting.

Choice A is wrong because postpartum mucous membrane congestion does not cause fever, cough, or shortness of breath.

Choice B is wrong because an upper respiratory infection does not cause edema and redness along the saphenous vein.

Choice D is wrong because an antipyretic remedy does not treat the underlying cause of the fever and may mask the severity of the condition.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Hemorrhage. This is because postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is severe bleeding and loss of blood after childbirth that can lead to death. The most common cause of PPH is the uterus not contracting properly after delivery. The nurse needs to monitor the client’s pulse and blood pressure frequently to detect signs of shock and blood loss.

Choice A is wrong because thromboembolism is a blood clot that blocks a blood vessel, not a complication of bleeding.

Choice B is wrong because cervical laceration is a tear in the cervix that can cause bleeding, but it is not a common cause of PPH.

Choice C is wrong because hemorrhoids are swollen veins in the anus or rectum that can cause bleeding, but they are not a common cause of PPH.

A. Gestational hypertension B. Small for gestational age newborn C. Two-vessel umbilical cord D. Precipitous birth

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Precipitous birth

This is because precipitous birth, which is defined as a labor that lasts less than three hours from the onset of contractions to delivery, is a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. This is because the uterus may not contract well after a rapid delivery, leading to uterine atony and bleeding. Other risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage include uterine overdistension, oxytocin use, placental abruption, placenta previa, infection, coagulation disorders, and previous history of postpartum hemorrhage.

Choice A is not correct because gestational hypertension is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that causes high blood pressure during pregnancy and can lead to complications such as preeclampsia, eclampsia, and placental abruption³.

Choice B is not correct because small for gestational age newborn is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that indicates that the baby's growth was restricted in the womb and weighs less than 90% of other babies of the same gestational age. It can be caused by maternal factors, placental factors, or fetal factors⁴.

Choice C is not correct because a two-vessel umbilical cord is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that occurs when the umbilical cord has only one artery and one vein instead of the normal two arteries and one vein. It can be associated with congenital anomalies, intrauterine growth restriction, and stillbirth.

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The 1-day postpartum patient shows a temperature elevation, cough, and slight shortness of breath on exertion. Based on these symptoms, the nurse should:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

When planning the care for a client during the first 24 hours postpartum, the nurse expects to monitor the client's pulse and blood pressure frequently based on the understanding that the client is at risk for which condition?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who experienced a vaginal birth 2 hr ago. The nurse should identify which of the following findings places the client at risk for a postpartum hemorrhage.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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