The 1-day postpartum patient shows a temperature elevation, cough, and slight shortness of breath on exertion. Based on these symptoms, the nurse should:
Document expected postpartum mucous membrane congestion
Notify the charge nurse of a possible upper respiratory infection
Notify the physician of a possible pulmonary embolism
Medicate with antipyretic remedy for elevated temperature
The Correct Answer is C
Notify the physician of a possible pulmonary embolism. This is because the client's symptoms suggest that she has a pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage of a blood vessel in the lungs often caused by blood clots that travel from the legs. Pulmonary embolism is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. The client may also have chest pain, coughing up blood, dizziness, or fainting.
Choice A is wrong because postpartum mucous membrane congestion does not cause fever, cough, or shortness of breath.
Choice B is wrong because an upper respiratory infection does not cause edema and redness along the saphenous vein.
Choice D is wrong because an antipyretic remedy does not treat the underlying cause of the fever and may mask the severity of the condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a sign of hypovolemic shock from postpartum hemorrhage, which occurs when the blood volume is reduced and the heart rate increases to compensate for the low cardiac output and tissue perfusion. Tachycardia is usually the first sign of hypovolemic shock, as it can occur even before a significant drop in blood pressure or other symptoms.
Choice A. Hypotension is incorrect because it is a late sign of hypovolemic shock, which occurs when the compensatory mechanisms fail to maintain adequate blood pressure and organ perfusion.
Choice B. Cold, clammy skin is incorrect because it is a sign of peripheral vasoconstriction, which occurs as a compensatory mechanism to divert blood flow to the vital organs. However, it is not specific to hypovolemic shock and can occur in other types of shock as well.
Choice D. Decreased urinary output is incorrect because it is a sign of renal impairment, which occurs as a result of reduced blood flow to the kidneys. However, it is not specific to hypovolemic shock and can occur in other types of shock or renal disorders as well.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Precipitous birth
This is because precipitous birth, which is defined as a labor that lasts less than three hours from the onset of contractions to delivery, is a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. This is because the uterus may not contract well after a rapid delivery, leading to uterine atony and bleeding. Other risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage include uterine overdistension, oxytocin use, placental abruption, placenta previa, infection, coagulation disorders, and previous history of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice A is not correct because gestational hypertension is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that causes high blood pressure during pregnancy and can lead to complications such as preeclampsia, eclampsia, and placental abruption³.
Choice B is not correct because small for gestational age newborn is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that indicates that the baby's growth was restricted in the womb and weighs less than 90% of other babies of the same gestational age. It can be caused by maternal factors, placental factors, or fetal factors⁴.
Choice C is not correct because a two-vessel umbilical cord is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that occurs when the umbilical cord has only one artery and one vein instead of the normal two arteries and one vein. It can be associated with congenital anomalies, intrauterine growth restriction, and stillbirth.
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