The 1-day postpartum patient shows a temperature elevation, cough, and slight shortness of breath on exertion. Based on these symptoms, the nurse should:
Document expected postpartum mucous membrane congestion
Notify the charge nurse of a possible upper respiratory infection
Notify the physician of a possible pulmonary embolism
Medicate with antipyretic remedy for elevated temperature
The Correct Answer is C
Notify the physician of a possible pulmonary embolism. This is because the client's symptoms suggest that she has a pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage of a blood vessel in the lungs often caused by blood clots that travel from the legs. Pulmonary embolism is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. The client may also have chest pain, coughing up blood, dizziness, or fainting.

Choice A is wrong because postpartum mucous membrane congestion does not cause fever, cough, or shortness of breath.
Choice B is wrong because an upper respiratory infection does not cause edema and redness along the saphenous vein.
Choice D is wrong because an antipyretic remedy does not treat the underlying cause of the fever and may mask the severity of the condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a sign of hypovolemic shock from postpartum hemorrhage, which occurs when the blood volume is reduced and the heart rate increases to compensate for the low cardiac output and tissue perfusion. Tachycardia is usually the first sign of hypovolemic shock, as it can occur even before a significant drop in blood pressure or other symptoms.
Choice A. Hypotension is incorrect because it is a late sign of hypovolemic shock, which occurs when the compensatory mechanisms fail to maintain adequate blood pressure and organ perfusion.
Choice B. Cold, clammy skin is incorrect because it is a sign of peripheral vasoconstriction, which occurs as a compensatory mechanism to divert blood flow to the vital organs. However, it is not specific to hypovolemic shock and can occur in other types of shock as well.
Choice D. Decreased urinary output is incorrect because it is a sign of renal impairment, which occurs as a result of reduced blood flow to the kidneys. However, it is not specific to hypovolemic shock and can occur in other types of shock or renal disorders as well.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Massage the client’s fundus. This is because the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony, which is the failure of the uterus to contract after delivery. Massaging the fundus can stimulate uterine contractions and reduce bleeding by compressing the blood vessels at the placental site.
Choice A is not correct because administering oxytocin is not the first action to take. Oxytocin is a medication that can also help the uterus contract, but it should be given after assessing the uterine tone and bleeding.
Choice B is not correct because observing for pooling of blood under the buttocks is not a priority action. It can help estimate the amount of blood loss, but it does not address the cause of bleeding or stop it.
Choice C is not correct because checking the client’s blood pressure is not the first action to take. Blood pressure can indicate hypovolemia due to blood loss, but it is not a sensitive indicator and may remain normal until a significant amount of blood is lost.
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