Patient Data.
Which order would the nurse question? Select all that apply.
Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C).
Enalapril 10 mg every morning.
Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula.
Continuous pulse oximetry.
Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin.
Admit to the medical floor.
Vital signs every 4 hours.
Correct Answer : A,B,C
Choice A rationale:
Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C). This order is questionable because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can potentially increase blood pressure, which could be harmful to a patient with hypertension. Furthermore, NSAIDs can mask the symptoms of infection, which could delay the diagnosis and treatment of serious infections.
Choice B rationale:
Enalapril 10 mg every morning. This order is questionable because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension. However, ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough, which could exacerbate the patient’s existing cough due to pneumonia. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can potentially cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), so it’s important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels.
Choice C rationale:
Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula. This order is questionable because a high flow rate of oxygen can potentially cause oxygen toxicity or hyperoxia, which can lead to cellular damage. The typical flow rate for a nasal cannula is between 1-6 L/min. A flow rate of 10 L/min may be too high for this patient, especially without a specified target SpO2 range.
Choice D rationale:
Continuous pulse oximetry. This order is appropriate because it allows for continuous monitoring of the patient’s oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in a patient with pneumonia and shortness of breath.
Choice E rationale:
Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin. This order is appropriate because these tests can help monitor the patient’s overall health status and response to treatment.
Choice F rationale:
Admit to the medical floor. This order is appropriate because the patient requires hospitalization for treatment and monitoring due to his pneumonia.
Choice G rationale:
Vital signs every 4 hours. This order is appropriate because it allows for regular monitoring of the patient’s vital signs, which can help detect any changes in his condition.
Choice H rationale:
Chest x-ray now. This order is appropriate because a chest x-ray can help confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia and assess its severity.
Choice I rationale:
Sputum culture and sensitivity. This order is appropriate because it can help identify the specific organism causing the pneumonia and determine its antibiotic sensitivity, which can guide antibiotic therapy.
Choice J rationale:
Levofloxacin 500 mg intravenously every 24 hours. This order is appropriate because levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat pneumonia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Instructing the UAP to apply a warm blanket and massage the client's back is the appropriate intervention in response to the client's complaints of feeling dizzy and cold during a fecal impaction removal procedure. These symptoms suggest a vasovagal response, which can be managed by keeping the client warm and providing comfort. This intervention helps increase blood flow and alleviate symptoms.
Choice B rationale:
Inserting a gloved finger into the rectum and massaging the rectal sphincter is not the first-line intervention when a client complains of feeling dizzy and cold during a fecal impaction removal. This invasive procedure should be reserved for cases where other interventions have failed, and it is necessary to complete the impaction removal.
Choice C rationale:
Stopping the procedure and observing for a reduction in symptoms before continuing is a reasonable approach, but it does not address the immediate discomfort and distress the client is experiencing. Providing comfort measures, such as applying a warm blanket and massaging the client's back, should be the initial response.
Choice D rationale:
Encouraging the client to take slow, deep breaths while continuing the procedure may not be effective in addressing the client's symptoms of dizziness and coldness. The client may require immediate comfort measures to stabilize their condition.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Instill 3 mL of normal saline before suctioning. This choice is not appropriate for suctioning excessive drooling in a client with ALS. Instilling normal saline would introduce additional fluid into the oral cavity, potentially worsening the problem by increasing the amount of secretions. The goal of suctioning is to remove excess saliva and maintain a clear airway.
Choice B rationale:
Instruct the client to cough as the suction tip is removed. Instructing the client to cough during suctioning is not a recommended practice. It may cause discomfort and can lead to an increased risk of aspiration as the client might inhale while coughing during the procedure.
Choice C rationale:
Apply a water-soluble lubricant to the catheter. Applying a water-soluble lubricant to the suction catheter is a common practice to facilitate the passage of the catheter and minimize irritation to the client's oral tissues. While it is a helpful step, it is not the primary action that should be taken to ensure the safety of the procedure.
Choice D rationale:
Wear protective goggles while performing the procedure. This is the correct choice. When suctioning a client's oral cavity, especially when dealing with excessive drooling or secretions, it is essential for the nurse to wear protective goggles. These goggles protect the nurse's eyes from potential exposure to the client's bodily fluids, reducing the risk of infection transmission.
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