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Patient Data.

Exhibits

Which order would the nurse question? Select all that apply.

Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C).

Enalapril 10 mg every morning.

Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula.

Continuous pulse oximetry.

Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin.

Admit to the medical floor.

Vital signs every 4 hours.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,B,C

Choice A rationale:

Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C). This order is questionable because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can potentially increase blood pressure, which could be harmful to a patient with hypertension. Furthermore, NSAIDs can mask the symptoms of infection, which could delay the diagnosis and treatment of serious infections.

Choice B rationale:

Enalapril 10 mg every morning. This order is questionable because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension. However, ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough, which could exacerbate the patient’s existing cough due to pneumonia. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can potentially cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), so it’s important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels.

Choice C rationale:

Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula. This order is questionable because a high flow rate of oxygen can potentially cause oxygen toxicity or hyperoxia, which can lead to cellular damage. The typical flow rate for a nasal cannula is between 1-6 L/min. A flow rate of 10 L/min may be too high for this patient, especially without a specified target SpO2 range.

Choice D rationale:

Continuous pulse oximetry. This order is appropriate because it allows for continuous monitoring of the patient’s oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in a patient with pneumonia and shortness of breath.

Choice E rationale:

Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin. This order is appropriate because these tests can help monitor the patient’s overall health status and response to treatment.

Choice F rationale:

Admit to the medical floor. This order is appropriate because the patient requires hospitalization for treatment and monitoring due to his pneumonia.

Choice G rationale:

Vital signs every 4 hours. This order is appropriate because it allows for regular monitoring of the patient’s vital signs, which can help detect any changes in his condition.

Choice H rationale:

Chest x-ray now. This order is appropriate because a chest x-ray can help confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia and assess its severity.

Choice I rationale:

Sputum culture and sensitivity. This order is appropriate because it can help identify the specific organism causing the pneumonia and determine its antibiotic sensitivity, which can guide antibiotic therapy.

Choice J rationale:

Levofloxacin 500 mg intravenously every 24 hours. This order is appropriate because levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat pneumonia.

Nursing Test Bank

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Procure platelet products from the blood bank. Rationale: Procuring platelet products from the blood bank is a specialized task that requires specific training and authorization. It should be performed by licensed healthcare providers, such as nurses or physicians, rather than unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).

Choice B rationale:

Titrate oxygen to the prescribed parameters. Rationale: Titrating oxygen to prescribed parameters requires clinical judgment and assessment skills, which are beyond the scope of practice for UAP. This task should be performed by licensed nurses or respiratory therapists.

Choice C rationale:

Monitor an intravenous infusion rate on an established schedule. Rationale: This is the correct answer. UAP can be trained to monitor intravenous (IV) infusion rates on an established schedule for clients who do not require complex adjustments. It is within their scope of practice to ensure that the IV is running at the prescribed rate and to report any abnormalities or concerns to the nursing staff.

Choice D rationale:

Insert a urinary catheter for an uncomplicated client. Rationale: Inserting a urinary catheter is a specialized nursing procedure that should only be performed by licensed nurses or healthcare providers. It is not within the scope of practice for UAP, even for uncomplicated cases.

A. Nausea. B. Fatigue. C. Pain when eating. D. Altered taste sensation.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Nausea can be a significant factor contributing to decreased food intake, but it is not the most likely cause in this scenario. Xerostomia (dry mouth) and mucositis are mentioned as symptoms in the question stem. Nausea alone does not explain why the client is consuming less than their body requirements.

Choice B rationale:

Fatigue can also contribute to decreased food intake, but it is not the most likely cause in this case. While fatigue can be a side effect of cancer treatment and may lead to reduced appetite, the question specifically mentions xerostomia and mucositis as issues contributing to imbalanced nutritional intake.

Choice C rationale:

Pain when eating is the most likely cause of imbalanced nutritional intake in this scenario. The client's laryngeal cancer and the development of mucositis indicate that eating is likely painful for them. This discomfort can significantly deter the client from eating, leading to decreased nutritional intake.

Choice D rationale:

Altered taste sensation can affect food preferences, but it is not the most likely cause in this case. Pain when eating is a more direct and immediate barrier to food intake, especially in the context of mucositis and laryngeal cancer.

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Patient Data. Exhibits Which order would the nurse question? Select all that apply.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

After receiving a change of shift report for clients on a medical surgical unit, which task should the nurse assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client who is receiving radiation treatment for laryngeal cancer has developed xerostomia and mucositis. The nurse determines the client has an imbalanced nutritional intake and is consuming less than body requirements. Which factor is the most likely cause for this problem?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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A nurse is teaching a client with hypertension about antihypertensive drugs. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A male client tells the practical nurse (PN) that the pill he has been taking at home is a diﬀerent color and size than the one the PN is trying to give him now. How should the PN respond?

Four days after exposure to the coronavirus (COVID-19), a client has a negative COVID-19 test result. Eight days after the negative test result, the client presents with fever, fatigue, and cough, and the nurse performs a second COVID-19 test. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

An older client with dementia who is refusing to allow an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) bathe her is becoming increasingly agitated and stating the UAP wants to hurt her and tie her up. Which approach should the nurse use with the client?​​​​​​

The practical nurse (PN) is providing care for a client who is receiving an aminoglycoside to treat a bacterial infection. To assess for signs of ototoxicity, which action should the PN take?

Patient Data.

Exhibits

Which order would the nurse question? Select all that apply.