nurse is caring for an adult client who has chronic anaemia and is scheduled to receive a transfusion of 1 unit of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Set the IV infusion pump to administer the blood over 6 hr.
Administer the blood via a 21-gauge IV needle.
Check the client's vital signs from the previous shift prior to the initiation of the transfusion
Rush the blood administration tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride prior to the transfusion
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason
Setting the IV infusion pump to administer the blood over 6 hours is not the recommended rate for administering packed RBCs. Blood transfusions are typically given more rapidly, usually within 2 to 4 hours. The specific rate may vary depending on the client's condition and the provider's order.
Choice B reason
Administering the blood via a 21-gauge IV needle is not typically related to the administration of the packed RBCs. The appropriate gauge of the IV needle for blood transfusions depends on the client's condition and the type of transfusion. Larger-gauge needles are often used for blood transfusions to allow for a faster flow rate and prevent haemolysis of the blood cells.
Choice C reason
Checking the client's vital signs from the previous shift prior to the initiation of the transfusion is not sufficient for ensuring the client's safety during the blood transfusion. The nurse should assess the client's current vital signs, including temperature, heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate, before initiating the transfusion. Monitoring vital signs is essential during the transfusion to detect any adverse reactions or changes in the client's condition.
Choice D reason
Rush the blood administration tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride prior to the transfusion is the correct answer. When preparing to administer a blood transfusion to an adult client with chronic anaemia, the nurse should rush the blood administration tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) prior to the transfusion. This process is called priming the tubing.
Priming the tubing helps remove any residual air from the tubing and ensures that the blood transfusion is administered smoothly without introducing air into the client's bloodstream. Air embolisms can be a serious complication, and priming the tubing with normal saline helps prevent this risk.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. INR.
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver.
These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR).
The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments.
The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly.
The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding. Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
Normal ranges:
- INR: 0.8-1.2
- Fibrinogen: 200-400 mg/dL
- aPTT: 25-35 seconds
- Platelet count: 150-450 x 10^9/L References:
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Perform the procedure prior to meals.
This is because postural drainage involves positioning the child in different ways to help drain the mucus from the lungs.
If the child has a full stomach, this can cause nausea, vomiting, or aspiration. Therefore, the nurse should perform the procedure before meals or at least 1 hour after meals.
Choice A is wrong because the nurse should not hold the hand flat to perform percussions on the child.
Percussions are rhythmic clapping on the chest wall to loosen the mucus. The nurse should use a cupped hand to create a small air pocket that enhances the vibrations and prevents bruising.
Choice B is wrong because the nurse should not perform the procedure twice a day. The recommended frequency of postural drainage is 3 to 4 times a day, or more if needed, depending on the child’s condition and tolerance.
Choice D is wrong because the nurse should not administer a bronchodilator after the procedure.
A bronchodilator is a medication that relaxes and widens the airways, making it easier to breathe. The nurse should administer a bronchodilator before the procedure to enhance the effectiveness of postural drainage.
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