A nurse is caring for a client who has nephrotic syndrome and is receiving high-dose corticosteroid therapy. For which of the following electrolyte imbalances should the nurse monitor?
Hyperkalemia
Hypokalemia
Hypermagnesemia
Hypomagnesemia
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Hyperkalemia is not the correct answer. Hyperkalemia is a high level of potassium in the blood. Corticosteroids do not cause hyperkalemia, but rather hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia may be caused by other factors such as renal failure, acidosis, or potassium-sparing diuretics.
Choice B reason: Hypokalemia is the correct answer. Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium in the blood. Corticosteroids can cause hypokalemia by increasing the excretion of potassium and sodium in the urine. Hypokalemia can cause muscle weakness, cramps, arrhythmias, and digoxin toxicity.
Choice C reason: Hypermagnesemia is not the correct answer. Hypermagnesemia is a high level of magnesium in the blood. Corticosteroids do not affect magnesium levels. Hypermagnesemia may be caused by other factors such as renal failure, excessive antacid use, or magnesium-containing laxatives.
Choice D reason: Hypomagnesemia is not the correct answer. Hypomagnesemia is a low level of magnesium in the blood. Corticosteroids do not affect magnesium levels. Hypomagnesemia may be caused by other factors such as malnutrition, alcoholism, or diuretic use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because the dosage is given in the prescription as 500 mg, which indicates the amount of the drug to be administered.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because the route is given in the prescription as PO, which stands for per os or by mouth, which indicates how the drug is to be administered.
Choice C reason: This is correct because the medication is not given in the prescription, which is the name of the drug to be administered. The nurse should ask the provider to clarify the medication name and spell it out if necessary.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because the time/frequency is given in the prescription as BID, which stands for bis in die or twice a day, which indicates when and how often the drug is to be administered.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is c. 2,525 mL.
Choice A reason:
1,350 mL is calculated by considering only the lactated Ringer’s IV intake. The calculation is as follows:
- Lactated Ringer’s IV at 150 mL/hr for 9 hr: 150 mL/hr × 9 hr = 1,350 mL. This option does not include the intake from cefazolin, packed RBCs, sodium chloride boluses, or famotidine.
Choice B reason:
1,600 mL is not a correct calculation based on the given intake. This value does not accurately sum up any combination of the provided intake components.
Choice C reason:
2,525 mL is the correct total intake. The detailed calculation is:
- Lactated Ringer’s IV at 150 mL/hr for 9 hr: 150 mL/hr × 9 hr = 1,350 mL.
- Cefazolin in 100 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride: 100 mL.
- Two units of packed RBCs: 275 mL + 250 mL = 525 mL.
- Two IV bolus infusions of 250 mL of 6.0% sodium chloride: 250 mL + 250 mL = 500 mL.
- Famotidine in 50 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride: 50 mL.
Adding these together: 1,350 mL + 100 mL + 525 mL + 500 mL + 50 mL = 2,525 mL.
Choice D reason:
2,100 mL is not a correct calculation based on the given intake. This value does not accurately sum up any combination of the provided intake components.
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