A nurse is monitoring the urinary output of a client who had a colon resection. Which 24-hour output total indicates oliguria?
380 mL
550 mL
600 mL
720 mL
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
A 24-hour urinary output of 380 mL indicates oliguria. Oliguria is defined as a urine output of less than 400-500 mL per day in adults. This condition can be caused by various factors, including dehydration, kidney dysfunction, or postoperative complications. Monitoring urine output is crucial for assessing kidney function and overall fluid balance, especially after major surgeries like a colon resection.
Choice B Reason:
A 24-hour urinary output of 550 mL is slightly above the threshold for oliguria. While it is still relatively low, it does not meet the strict criteria for oliguria, which is typically defined as less than 400-500 mL per day. This output suggests that the client is producing an adequate amount of urine, though it may still warrant close monitoring to ensure it does not decrease further.
Choice C Reason:
A 24-hour urinary output of 600 mL is within the normal range and does not indicate oliguria. Normal urine output for adults is generally considered to be around 800-2000 mL per day, depending on fluid intake and other factors. This output suggests that the client’s kidneys are functioning properly and that there is no immediate concern for oliguria.
Choice D Reason:
A 24-hour urinary output of 720 mL is also within the normal range and does not indicate oliguria. This output is closer to the lower end of the normal range but still suggests adequate kidney function. It is important to continue monitoring the client’s urine output to ensure it remains within a healthy range, especially after surgery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
“Prevents pressure ulcers” is incorrect. While positioning can help prevent pressure ulcers, the orthopneic position is specifically used to aid in breathing rather than to prevent pressure ulcers. Pressure ulcers are typically managed by regularly repositioning the client and using pressure-relieving devices.
Choice B Reason:
“Supports hip extension” is incorrect. The orthopneic position does not primarily support hip extension. This position involves sitting up and leaning forward, which does not significantly affect the hips.
Choice C Reason:
“Facilitates breathing” is correct. The orthopneic position, also known as the tripod position, helps to improve breathing in clients with COPD. By leaning forward and resting the arms on a table or knees, the diaphragm can move more freely, and accessory muscles of respiration are better utilized, reducing the work of breathing.
Choice D Reason:
“Promotes urinary elimination” is incorrect. The orthopneic position is not intended to promote urinary elimination. Urinary elimination is typically managed through other interventions such as ensuring adequate hydration and, if necessary, using a catheter.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Mobilizes secretions is correct. Expectorants work by thinning and loosening the mucus in the airways, making it easier to cough up and expel. This helps clear the respiratory tract of mucus and other secretions, making the cough more productive.
Choice B Reason:
Suppresses the urge to cough is incorrect. This describes the action of antitussives, not expectorants. Antitussives work by suppressing the cough reflex, which is different from the mechanism of expectorants.
Choice C Reason:
Reduces inflammation is incorrect. While reducing inflammation can help with respiratory symptoms, it is not the primary mechanism of action for expectorants. Anti-inflammatory medications are used to reduce inflammation.
Choice D Reason:
Dries mucous membranes is incorrect. Drying mucous membranes is typically the action of antihistamines, not expectorants. Expectorants aim to increase the moisture in mucus to make it less sticky and easier to expel.
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