A client who is receiving pregabalin for fibromyalgia complains of tremors in the hands. Which action should the nurse implement?
Administer a PRN dose of an antianxiety drug.
Obtain orthostatic blood pressure readings.
Notify the healthcare provider.
Collect a capillary glucose level.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason:
Administering a PRN dose of an antianxiety drug might seem like a reasonable action if the tremors are related to anxiety. However, without a clear indication that anxiety is the cause of the tremors, this action could mask the underlying issue and delay appropriate treatment. It is essential to identify the root cause of the tremors before administering any medication.
Choice B reason:
Obtaining orthostatic blood pressure readings is a useful assessment for determining if the client has orthostatic hypotension, which can cause dizziness and fainting. However, this action is not directly related to the complaint of hand tremors. While it is a good practice to monitor vital signs, it does not address the immediate concern of tremors caused by pregabalin.
Choice C reason:
Notifying the healthcare provider is the most appropriate action. Tremors can be a side effect of pregabalin12. The healthcare provider needs to be informed to evaluate the severity of the side effect and decide whether to adjust the medication dosage or switch to an alternative treatment. This ensures that the client receives the most appropriate care and avoids potential complications.

Choice D reason:
Collecting a capillary glucose level is important for clients with diabetes or those at risk of hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. However, there is no indication in the scenario that the client has diabetes or that blood glucose levels are related to the tremors. Therefore, this action is not directly relevant to the client’s current complaint.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
A CT scan performed six months earlier does not typically require follow-up unless there were specific findings or complications from the previous scan. The timing of the previous scan is not a contraindication for a new CT scan with contrast. However, it is always good practice to review previous imaging results to compare and assess any changes.
Choice B reason:
Metformin hydrochloride is a medication used to manage type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is important to follow up on this information because metformin can interact with the contrast dye used in CT scans. The combination can increase the risk of lactic acidosis, a rare but serious complication. Therefore, it is crucial to assess kidney function and possibly withhold metformin before and after the procedure to reduce this risk.
Choice C reason:
A report of the client’s sobriety for the last five years is generally a positive aspect of their medical history and does not require follow-up in the context of a CT scan with contrast. Sobriety does not impact the safety or efficacy of the contrast dye used in the scan.
Choice D reason:
A metal hip prosthesis placed twenty years ago is relevant information but does not typically require follow-up before a CT scan. Unlike MRI, where metal implants can cause issues, CT scans are generally safe for patients with metal prostheses. However, the presence of metal can sometimes affect the quality of the images, so it is important for the radiologist to be aware of it.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Placing the new patch on the client’s shoulder and leaving both patches in place for 12 hours is not recommended. Fentanyl patches are designed to be used one at a time, and overlapping patches can lead to an overdose due to excessive absorption of the medication1. The standard practice is to remove the old patch before applying a new one.
Choice B reason:
Removing the patch and consulting with the healthcare provider about the client’s pain resolution is a cautious approach. However, it is not necessary to consult the healthcare provider if the client denies pain and the patch is due for replacement. The nurse should follow the standard protocol for patch replacement.
Choice C reason:
Applying the new patch in a different location after removing the original patch is the correct action. This ensures that the medication is delivered effectively while preventing skin irritation and potential overdose. The new patch should be placed on a different area of intact skin to allow the previous site to recover.
Choice D reason:
Administering an oral analgesic and evaluating its effectiveness before applying the new patch is not appropriate in this scenario. The client is already receiving pain management through the transdermal patch, and additional oral analgesics are not necessary unless there is breakthrough pain. The focus should be on proper patch replacement
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