Prior to administering an oral dose of methylprednisolone, the nurse determines the client's serum total calcium level is 5.5 mg/dl (1.4 mmol/L). Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

Reference Range:

Total Calcium 9 to 10.4 mg/dL (2.3 to 2.6 mmol/L)
A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

B.Administer a calcium supplement as ordered by the healthcare provider

C. Administer the medication with a glass of milk.

D. Begin tapering the drug dose per protocol.

Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Administer a calcium supplement as ordered by the healthcare provider

Administer the medication with a glass of milk.

Begin tapering the drug dose per protocol.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) A total calcium level of 5.5 mg/dL (1.4 mmol/L) is critically low, as the normal reference range for total calcium is between 9 to 10.4 mg/dL (2.3 to 2.6 mmol/L). Hypocalcemia can lead to serious complications such as tetany, arrhythmias, and seizures. Before administering methylprednisolone, which can further decrease calcium levels and contribute to osteoporosis, it is essential to notify the healthcare provider to address the client's low calcium level. This may involve correcting the calcium deficiency before proceeding with the administration of the

B) If a healthcare provider orders a calcium supplement for the client, administering it would be appropriate to help correct the hypocalcemia before administering methylprednisolone. However, in the absence of a direct order, the nurse should first notify the healthcare provider to ensure that the client's calcium levels are addressed appropriately before proceeding with any medication that could exacerbate the issue. The priority is to manage the low calcium levels before administering corticosteroids like methylprednisolone.

C) Administering methylprednisolone with a glass of milk may help with calcium absorption; however, this does not directly address the critical issue of hypocalcemia. The nurse must first prioritize notifying the healthcare provider and correcting the calcium imbalance before proceeding with medication administration.

D) Tapering the dose of methylprednisolone is not immediately appropriate based on the low calcium level alone. Methylprednisolone is often tapered to avoid withdrawal symptoms, but the nurse's first priority is to address the client's hypocalcemia, which can have more immediate clinical consequences. The focus should be on stabilizing the calcium level first.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) While measuring the client’s vital signs is a routine nursing intervention, the reported symptoms of confusion and blurred vision after receiving glipizide suggest the possibility of hypoglycemia. Vital signs may not provide immediate information about the client’s glucose levels or help confirm hypoglycemia. However, if the client’s symptoms persist or worsen, assessing vital signs becomes important to monitor for signs of shock or other complications.

B) Obtaining a fingerstick blood glucose is the priority action in this situation. Glipizide is an oral antidiabetic medication that stimulates insulin release from the pancreas, leading to lower blood glucose levels. Symptoms such as confusion and blurred vision are indicative of hypoglycemia, a potential adverse effect of glipizide. Checking the client’s blood glucose level will confirm hypoglycemia and guide further interventions.

C) While performing a neurological exam may be warranted if the client’s symptoms persist or if there are concerns about other neurological issues, confirming hypoglycemia with a fingerstick blood glucose test should be the immediate priority.

D) Administering glucagon intramuscularly (IM) is indicated for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. However, in this scenario, the client is conscious and able to report symptoms. Before administering glucagon, it is essential to confirm hypoglycemia with a blood glucose measurement to avoid unnecessary interventions.

Therefore, the nurse should promptly obtain a fingerstick blood glucose to confirm hypoglycemia and initiate appropriate treatment for the client’s symptoms.

A. Use a twice a week dosing schedule. B. Take the medication early in the day. C. Stand and sit up slowly. D. Reduce daily fluid intake.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Tamsulosin is typically administered once daily, not on a twice-weekly dosing schedule. Instructing the client to adhere to the prescribed dosing frequency is essential for maintaining therapeutic blood levels of the medication and optimizing its effectiveness in managing urinary retention associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).

B) While the timing of medication administration can impact its effectiveness, taking tamsulosin early in the day versus later in the day may not significantly affect its therapeutic action. The key consideration with tamsulosin is to maintain consistency in timing to ensure a steady plasma concentration of the drug.

C) Instructing the client to stand and sit up slowly is crucial because tamsulosin, as an alpha-blocker, can cause orthostatic hypotension, especially when first starting the medication or when increasing the dosage. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent falls and dizziness, which are common side effects associated with sudden drops in blood pressure.

D) Reducing daily fluid intake is not advisable, especially for a client with urinary retention. Maintaining adequate hydration is essential for overall health and urinary function. Tamsulosin works by relaxing the smooth muscles of the prostate and bladder neck, facilitating urine flow, but it does not directly affect fluid intake requirements.

Therefore, the most important instruction for the nurse to provide is to stand and sit up slowly to minimize the risk of orthostatic hypotension and associated complications.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client reports confusion and blurred vision after receiving a dose of glipizide. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client is receiving tamsulosin for the management of urinary retention due to benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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