Mr. Edward Long is a 50-year-old office worker who has gained 50 pounds over the past 5 years. His blood pressure has consistently been high, but he has declined to take medication for the condition. His cholesterol level has been above 210 mg/dL on his last three office visits. He claims to have no chronic diseases and is at the office seeking assistance concerning his weight gain. While there, the healthcare provider speaks to him about his cholesterol level and hypertension.
The health provider ordered atorvastatin (Lipitor) for his high lipids, and hydrochlorothiazide for his hypertension. Mr. Long agrees with this treatment plan. He is returning now for a 1 month follow-up.Which of the following assessment findings is a priority for the nurse to follow- up?
Blood pressure 130/80
States knee pain is currently a 5/10 (on a 0 to 10 pain intensity scale)
Hypoactive bowel sounds X4
Complains of muscle weakness
The Correct Answer is D
Explanation:
A. A blood pressure of 130/80 is within the target range (below 140/90 for most individuals) and does not require immediate follow-up.
B. Knee pain, while important, is not an immediate priority compared to potential medication side effects or complications.
C. Hypoactive bowel sounds, while needing monitoring, are not typically a priority over potential adverse effects of medication.
D. Complaints of muscle weakness could indicate a potential side effect of atorvastatin (Lipitor), which should be promptly addressed to prevent complications such as rhabdomyolysis. Therefore, it is the priority assessment finding for the nurse to follow-up.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Beta-adrenergic blockers primarily work by decreasing heart rate and contractility rather than directly affecting peripheral resistance.
B. Beta-adrenergic blockers decrease contractility and heart rate, rather than increasing them.
C. Relaxation of arterial and venous smooth muscle is typically associated with calcium channel blockers, not beta-adrenergic blockers.
D. Beta-adrenergic blockers slow the heart rate and reduce the force of contraction of the heart muscle, reducing myocardial oxygen demand and helping to relieve angina symptoms.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The symptoms described are characteristic of mania, not indicative of an overdose of barbiturates.
B. The symptoms described align with a manic episode, which is a hallmark feature of bipolar disorder.
C. These symptoms are not typically associated with lithium side effects.
D. The symptoms described are not consistent with depression but rather with mania.
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