Methotrexate is prescribed for a client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) who is also taking aspirin. Which is the best explanation for the nurse to provide as to why a second medication has been added?
Methotrexate slows the disease progression while aspirin controls the symptoms.
Methotrexate helps to reduce the side effects of the aspirin therapy.
Methotrexate enhances the effectiveness of the aspirin.
Methotrexate has less harmful side effects than aspirin.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Methotrexate is commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) to slow the progression of the disease by suppressing the immune system's response that causes inflammation. Aspirin may be used concurrently to provide symptomatic relief from pain and inflammation associated with RA.
B. While methotrexate may have side effects, its primary indication in RA treatment is to slow disease progression rather than to mitigate aspirin side effects.
C. Methotrexate and aspirin typically work through different mechanisms of action and are not typically used together to enhance each other's effectiveness.
D. Methotrexate and aspirin have different side effect profiles, but the primary reason for adding methotrexate is to slow the progression of RA rather than to replace aspirin due to side effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Wearing braces on both wrists during the night can help maintain a neutral wrist position and alleviate pressure on the median nerve, reducing symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome.
B. Notifying the healthcare provider may be necessary if symptoms worsen or if additional interventions are needed, but this is not the first-line intervention for managing symptoms at night.
C. Elevating the hands on two pillows at night may provide some relief, but it is not as effective as wearing wrist braces to maintain proper alignment and reduce pressure on the median nerve.
D. Applying cold compresses before bedtime may help reduce inflammation but is not specifically targeted at alleviating nighttime symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Alternating IV and IM analgesic medications may be appropriate for pain management in some situations but is not the best initial intervention for continuous, severe pain in a client with stage IV bone cancer.
B. Administering opioid and non-opioid medication simultaneously is an appropriate intervention for managing severe pain, as it addresses pain from multiple pathways and may provide more effective pain relief.
C. Giving maximum dosage when the pain score reaches 10 is not recommended, as it may lead to overmedication and increased risk of adverse effects. Pain management should be based on the client's reported pain intensity and individualized needs.
D. Educating the client on signs and symptoms of narcotic dependency is important but is not the priority intervention in this situation. Pain management and relief should be the immediate focus for the client's comfort and quality of life.
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