Lactulose was prescribed two days ago for a client who was recently diagnosed with hepatic encephalopathy. The client is confused and experiencing frequent loose stools. Laboratory findings show an elevated serum ammonia (NH) level of 220 μg/dL (157.1 μmol/dL). Which action should the nurse take?
Reference Range:
Ammonia [10 to 80 μg/dL (6 to 47 μmol/L)]
Hold the next dose of lactulose.
Continue the prescribed dose of lactulose.
Replace total volume voided with oral or IV fluids.
Report the number of diarrhea stools to the healthcare provider (HCP).
The Correct Answer is B
B. Lactulose works by acidifying the colonic contents, which promotes the conversion of ammonia (NH3) to ammonium (NH4+). Ammonium is less readily absorbed from the colon into the bloodstream, reducing systemic ammonia levels. This action helps alleviate the neurotoxic effects of ammonia on the brain, thereby improving neurological symptoms associated with hepatic encephalopathy.
A. Lactulose is required in clients with hepatic encephalopathy to excrete ammonia lowering its levels in blood. Holding the lactulose dose is inappropriate as the client’s ammonia levels are still high
C. Rehydrating the clients to replace lost fluids in the loose stools is important but does not address
the client’s elevated ammonia levels which may be exacerbating the client’s encephalopathy.
D. Reporting the number of diarrhea stools to the healthcare provider is important for ongoing assessment and management of the client's condition. However, it does not address the clients high ammonia levels.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism that is filtered by the kidneys. Elevated serum creatinine levels may indicate impaired kidney function. Since contrast agents can affect renal function, a serum creatinine level above the reference range should be reported to the healthcare provider before the MRI with contrast.
A. While elevated blood sugar levels may indicate diabetes or poor glycemic control, they are not directly related to kidney function or the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy. Therefore, this value is not the most pertinent for reporting before an MRI with contrast.
C.Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past two to three months and is used to assess long-term glycemic control in diabetes. While elevated HbA1c levels suggest poor diabetes management, they do not directly assess kidney function or the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy.
D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels reflect the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood and can indicate kidney function. Elevated BUN levels may suggest impaired renal function. However, an elevated serum creatinine is a more reliable marker for renal excretion.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. An increase in pain after cast placement could indicate complications such as compartment syndrome, which is a serious condition that occurs when increased pressure within a confined space (such as the area within the cast) compromises circulation and tissue perfusion. Assessing the radial pulse volume on the affected arm is crucial to evaluate perfusion distal to the fracture site.
A. Distraction technique may help manage the client's pain but does not address the underlying cause of the pain increase, which could be related to compromised circulation.
C. Analgesics relieve pain but do not address the immediate limb threatening issue at hand.
D. Measuring blood pressure is not directly related to assessing circulation distal to the fracture site.
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