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The healthcare provider prescribes diazepam 8 mg IM every 4 hours PRN muscle spasms for a client with a fractured femur. The available vial is labeled, "Diazepam Injection, USP 10 mg/2 mL" How many mL should the nurse administer to the client? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is required round to the nearest tenth)
Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is ["1.6"]

To determine how many milliliters (mL) of diazepam the nurse should administer to the client, first, we need to calculate the amount of medication needed for each dose.

The prescribed dose is 8 mg of diazepam.

Volume= Desired dose/available concentration per ml

Available concentration per ml= 10mg/2ml Available concentration per ml= 5mg/ml Volume= 8mg/5mg per ml

Volume= 1.6ml

So, the nurse should administer 1.6 mL of diazepam to the client.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"B"}

Explanation

Option 1-prediabetes

Option 2- impaired glucose tolerance

Rationale

Prediabetes is a condition characterized by higher than normal blood sugar levels, but not high enough to be classified as type 2 diabetes. It's considered a warning sign that indicates an increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes, heart disease, and stroke if left unmanaged.

Prediabetes is diagnosed if FPG levels are between 100-125 mg/dL, OGTT levels are between 140-199 mg/dL, or HbA1c levels are between 5.7-6.4%.

It occurs due to impaired glucose tolerance in insulin resistance. In individuals with insulin resistance, cells, particularly muscle, liver, and fat cells, become less sensitive to insulin's actions. As a result, glucose uptake by cells is impaired, leading to higher blood sugar levels. Hypoglycemia refers to a condition characterized by abnormally low blood sugar levels, typically below 70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L). It occurs when there is an imbalance between the amount of glucose in the bloodstream and the body's requirements for energy.

Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) is a type of diabetes that develops during pregnancy. It is characterized by high blood sugar levels that occur for the first time during pregnancy and typically resolves after childbirth.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. Lactulose works by acidifying the colonic contents, which promotes the conversion of ammonia (NH3) to ammonium (NH4+). Ammonium is less readily absorbed from the colon into the bloodstream, reducing systemic ammonia levels. This action helps alleviate the neurotoxic effects of ammonia on the brain, thereby improving neurological symptoms associated with hepatic encephalopathy.
A. Lactulose is required in clients with hepatic encephalopathy to excrete ammonia lowering its levels in blood. Holding the lactulose dose is inappropriate as the client’s ammonia levels are still high
C. Rehydrating the clients to replace lost fluids in the loose stools is important but does not address
the client’s elevated ammonia levels which may be exacerbating the client’s encephalopathy.
D. Reporting the number of diarrhea stools to the healthcare provider is important for ongoing assessment and management of the client's condition. However, it does not address the clients high ammonia levels.

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