Inability to leave one's home because of avoidance of severe anxiety suggests the existence of which anxiety disorder?
Posttraumatic stress response
Panic attacks with agoraphobia
Generalized anxiety disorder
Obsessive-compulsive disorder
The Correct Answer is B
A. Posttraumatic stress response involves reliving traumatic events, flashbacks, and hyperarousal, not specifically avoidance due to anxiety about leaving the home.
B. Agoraphobia is characterized by a fear of situations where escape might be difficult or help unavailable, leading to avoidance behavior such as being unable to leave home. It often co-occurs with panic disorder.
C. Generalized anxiety disorder involves excessive worry about multiple areas of life but not specific avoidance behaviors like agoraphobia.
D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder involves intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsions), but not the avoidance behavior characteristic of agoraphobia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Propranolol: Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can be used to treat physical symptoms of anxiety, such as a racing heart. While it may help reduce physiological symptoms, it does not address the psychological components of anxiety and is not commonly prescribed for acute anxiety episodes like test-taking anxiety. Propranolol is more effective for individuals with performance anxiety (e.g., public speaking).
B. Lorazepam: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that works by depressing the central nervous system, providing rapid relief of acute anxiety symptoms. It is often used for short-term management of anxiety and can effectively reduce symptoms such as racing heart and trembling hands, making it appropriate for episodic anxiety like test-taking anxiety. However, it is typically prescribed for short-term use due to its potential for dependence.
C. Sertraline: Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used for chronic anxiety and depression, but it is not effective for acute episodic anxiety. SSRIs are typically prescribed for long-term management of anxiety disorders, rather than immediate symptom relief.
D. Buspirone: Buspirone is an anxiolytic medication used for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) but has a delayed onset of action and is not effective for acute, episodic anxiety relief. It is more suitable for long-term management rather than immediate symptom control.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Persistent low-grade depression without hypomania is not typical of bipolar II disorder, as hypomanic episodes are a key feature of the disorder.
B. Psychosis is more common during full manic episodes, typically seen in bipolar I disorder, not bipolar II.
C. Bipolar II disorder is characterized by hypomanic episodes that alternate with major depressive episodes. Hypomania is a less severe form of mania, and individuals with bipolar II do not experience full manic episodes as in bipolar I.
D. Severe manic episodes are characteristic of bipolar I disorder, not bipolar II, which involves hypomanic episodes instead.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.