In providing care to a patient who sustained left sided 10th through 12th rib fractures, the nurse notes Kehr's Cullen's and Gray Turner's signs during assessment. Which abdominal organ is most likely to be affected by this trauma?
Intestines
Liver
Spleen
Stomach
The Correct Answer is C
A) Intestines:
While abdominal trauma can affect the intestines, Kehr's sign, Cullen's sign, and Gray Turner's sign are more commonly associated with damage to the spleen rather than the intestines. Kehr's sign, in particular, is a hallmark of splenic injury, with pain referred to the left shoulder due to diaphragmatic irritation from blood in the peritoneum.
B) Liver:
Liver injuries often present with right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and elevated liver enzymes. While liver injuries can cause internal bleeding, Cullen's and Gray Turner's signs are more closely associated with retroperitoneal bleeding from the spleen rather than liver injuries. Kehr's sign, which is left-sided shoulder pain, would not typically indicate a liver injury.
C) Spleen:
The spleen is the most likely abdominal organ affected in this case due to the left-sided rib fractures. When the spleen is injured (often as a result of blunt trauma), it can cause intraperitoneal hemorrhage. This bleeding can irritate the diaphragm, leading to Kehr's sign, which presents as left shoulder pain. Additionally, Cullen's sign (periumbilical bruising) and Gray Turner's sign (flank bruising) are indicative of retroperitoneal bleeding, which can occur with splenic rupture or laceration.
D) Stomach:
While stomach injuries can occur with blunt abdominal trauma, they are less likely to cause the signs and symptoms seen in this patient (Kehr's, Cullen's, and Gray Turner's signs). Stomach trauma typically leads to pain and potential perforation, but it doesn't often cause the peritoneal bleeding patterns seen with splenic injuries.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D"]
Explanation
A) O- (O negative):
A person with blood type A- can safely receive blood from a universal donor blood type, which is O-. This is because O- has no A, B, or Rh antigens on the surface of its red blood cells, making it compatible with any ABO blood group. The Rh negative status is also compatible, as the recipient is also Rh-negative.
B) AB- (AB negative):
A person with blood type A- cannot receive blood from someone with AB-. This is because the AB- blood type contains both A and B antigens on the surface of red blood cells, which could cause an immune reaction in a person with A- blood, whose immune system will react against the B antigen. Therefore, AB- is not compatible with A- blood.
C) A+ (A positive):
A person with A- blood cannot receive blood from an A+ donor, because the A+ blood contains the Rh positive antigen. If a person with A- blood receives Rh-positive blood, they will form antibodies against the Rh factor, leading to a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Therefore, A+ is not compatible with A- blood.
D) A- (A negative):
A person with A- blood can receive blood from another A- donor, because both share the A antigen and are Rh-negative. This is a perfect match and poses no risk of a transfusion reaction.
E) O+ (O positive):
A person with A- blood cannot receive blood from an O+ donor, because the O+ blood contains the Rh-positive antigen. This could cause an immune reaction in a person with A- blood, leading to the production of anti-Rh antibodies. Therefore, O+ is not compatible with A- blood.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr:
This is a positive outcome during fluid resuscitation for burn patients. Adequate urine output is a key indicator of proper renal perfusion and fluid balance. A urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr is considered optimal for burn patients during the first 24-48 hours of resuscitation. It suggests that the kidneys are receiving sufficient blood flow and that the patient is responding appropriately to the fluids being administered.
B) Serum sodium level 149 mEq/L (normal 135-145):
A serum sodium level of 149 mEq/L is high and indicates hypernatremia, which is a common complication of excessive fluid resuscitation, particularly with the use of crystalloids. Hypernatremia can lead to cerebral edema, altered mental status, and other severe complications. Therefore, this finding would suggest improper fluid management and would not be considered a positive outcome.
C) Blood pressure 82/54:
A blood pressure of 82/54 is hypotensive, which is concerning in a burn patient. Hypotension indicates inadequate tissue perfusion, potentially leading to shock and organ failure. While low blood pressure may occur in the initial stages of resuscitation due to the rapid shifts in fluid, a sustained low blood pressure is not a positive outcome.
D) Heart rate 124 beats per minute:
A heart rate of 124 beats per minute is tachycardic and suggests that the patient is compensating for hypovolemia or inadequate circulatory volume, possibly due to insufficient fluid resuscitation. Although an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism in the initial stages of burn resuscitation, sustained tachycardia indicates ongoing volume depletion or inadequate perfusion and is not an ideal outcome.
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